SY0-601 Sample Questions Answers

CASB stands for cloud access security broker, which is a software tool or service that acts as an intermediary between users and cloud service providers. CASB can help protect data stored in cloud services by enforcing security policies and controls such as encryption, tokenization, authentication, authorization, logging, auditing, and threat detection. Tokenization is a process that replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive substitutes called tokens that have no intrinsic value. Tokenization can help prevent data leakage by ensuring that only authorized users can access the original data using a tokenization system.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/what

Command Output1 = Logic Bomb

A logic bomb is a type of malicious code that executes when certain conditions are met, such as a specific date or time, or a specific user action1. In this case, the logic bomb is a script that runs every minute and checks if there is a user named john in the /etc/password file. If there is, it drops the production database using a MySQL command3. This could cause severe damage to the system and the data.

To prevent logic bombs, you should use antivirus software that can detect and remove malicious code, and also perform regular backups of your data. You should also avoid opening suspicious attachments or links from unknown sources, and use strong passwords for your accounts1.

Command Output2 = backdoorA backdoor is a type of malicious code that allows an attacker to access a system or network remotely, bypassing security measures1. In this case, the backdoor is a script that runs every time the date command is executed and prompts the user to enter their full name. Then, it opens a reverse shell connection using the nc command and downloads a virus file from a malicious website using the wget command2. This could allow the attacker to execute commands on the system and infect it with malware.

To prevent backdoors, you should use antivirus software that can detect and remove malicious code, and also update your system and applications regularly. You should also avoid executing unknown commands or scripts from untrusted sources, and use firewall rules to block unauthorized connections

A jump server is a system that is used to manage and access systems in a separate security zone. It acts as a bridge between two different security zones and provides a controlled and secure way of accessing systems between them12. A jump server can also be used for auditing traffic and user activity for real-time surveillance3. By deploying a jump server that is accessible via the internal network, the security analyst can securely meet the remote connectivity requirements for the servers and cameras without exposing them directly to the internet or allowing outgoing traffic from their subnet. The other options are not suitable because:

• A. Creating firewall rules that prevent outgoing traffic from the subnet the servers and cameras reside on would not allow remote maintenance via the company VPN.
• C. Disabling all unused ports on the switch that the cameras are plugged into and enabling MAC filtering would not prevent direct internet access to the cameras or servers.
• D. Implementing a WAF to allow traffic from the local NTP server to the camera server would not address the remote connectivity requirements or protect the servers from internet access.

References:

1: https://www.thesecuritybuddy.com/network-security/what-is-a-jump-server/  3: https://www.ssh.com/academy/iam/jump-server  2: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jump_server

A privileged access management (PAM) system is a solution that helps protect organizations against cyberthreats by monitoring, detecting, and preventing unauthorized privileged access to critical resources12. A PAM system can meet the requirements of the project by providing features such as:

• Check-in/checkout of credentials: A PAM system can store and manage privileged credentials in a secure vault, and allow authorized users to check out credentials when needed and check them back in when done. This reduces the risk of credential theft, misuse, or sharing23.
• The ability to use but not know the password: A PAM system can enable users to access privileged accounts or resources without revealing the actual password, using methods such as password injection, session proxy, or single sign-on23. This prevents users from copying, changing, or sharing passwords2.
• Automated password changes: A PAM system can automatically rotate and update passwords for privileged accounts according to predefined policies, such as frequency, complexity, and uniqueness23. This ensures that passwords are always strong and unpredictable, and reduces the risk of password reuse or compromise2.
• Logging of access to credentials: A PAM system can record and audit all activities related to privileged access, such as who accessed what credentials, when, why, and what they did with them23. This provides visibility and accountability for privileged access, and enables detection and investigation of anomalies or incidents2.

A PAM system is different from OAuth 2.0, which is an authorization framework that enables third-party applications to obtain limited access to an HTTP service on behalf of a resource owner4. OAuth 2.0 does not provide the same level of control and security over privileged access as a PAM system does.

A PAM system is also different from a secure enclave, which is a hardware-based security feature that creates an isolated execution environment within a processor to protect sensitive data from unauthorized access or modification5. A secure enclave does not provide the same functionality as a PAM system for managing privileged credentials and access.

A PAM system is also different from an OpenID Connect authentication system, which is an identity layer on top of OAuth 2.0 that enables users to verify their identity across multiple websites using a single login6. OpenID Connect does not provide the same scope and granularity as a PAM system for controlling and monitoring privileged access.

Salting is a technique that adds random data to user credentials before hashing them. This makes the hashed credentials more secure and resistant to brute-force attacks or rainbow table attacks. Salting also ensures that two users with the same password will have different hashed credentials.

A company that has more computing power can consider using salting to ensure user credentials are being transmitted and stored more securely. Salting can increase the complexity and entropy of the hashed credentials, making them harder to crack or reverse.

zero trust is a security strategy that assumes breach and verifies each request as though it originates from an untrusted network12. A zero trust policy is a set of “allow rules” that specify conditions for accessing certain resources3.

According to one source4, the first step in implementing a zero trust policy is to identify and classify all data and assets in the organization. This helps to determine the level of sensitivity and risk associated with each resource and apply appropriate access controls.

Classifying all data on the file servers is the first step in implementing a zero trust policy because it helps to determine the level of sensitivity and risk associated with each resource and apply appropriate access controls.

SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management, which is a solution that can collect, correlate, and analyze security logs and events from various devices on a network. SIEM can provide better visibility into user activities by generating reports, alerts, dashboards, and metrics. SIEM can also help detect and respond to security incidents, comply with regulations, and improve security posture.

Invest in secure coding training and application security guidelines is the most effective approach for the manager to use to address the issue of common vulnerabilities in the applications developed by the team. Secure coding training can help the developers learn how to write code that follows security best practices and avoids common mistakes or flaws that can introduce vulnerabilities. Application security guidelines can provide a set of standards and rules for developing secure applications that meet the company’s security requirements and policies. By investing in secure coding training and application security guidelines, the manager can improve the security awareness and skills of the development team and reduce the number of vulnerabilities in their applications. References: 1 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.3: Summarize secure application development, deployment, and automation concepts 2 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the importance of embedded and specialized systems security 3 https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-secure-coding

Typosquatting is a type of cyberattack that involves registering domains with deliberately misspelled names of well-known websites. The attackers do this to lure unsuspecting visitors to alternative websites, typically for malicious purposes. Visitors may end up at these alternative websites by inadvertently mistyping the name of popular websites into their web browser or by being lured by a phishing scam. The attackers may emulate the look and feel of the legitimate websites and trick users into entering sensitive information or downloading malware.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/definitions/what-is-typosquatting

Before connecting security devices to the network, it is crucial to address default settings first. Manufacturers often ship devices with default settings that include default usernames, passwords, and configurations. These settings are widely known and can be easily exploited by attackers. Changing default settings helps to secure the device and prevent unauthorized access. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 Exam Objectives, Section 3.2: "Given a scenario, implement secure systems design." (https://www.comptia.jp /pdf/Security%2B%20SY0-501%20Exam%20Objectives.pdf)

A tabletop exercise is a type of security exercise that involves a simulated scenario of a security incident and a discussion of how the security team would respond to it1. A tabletop exercise is a low-impact and cost-effective way to test the security team’s preparedness, identify gaps and areas for improvement, and enhance communication and coordination among team members2. A tabletop exercise is different from a red-team exercise, which is a simulated attack by an authorized group of ethical hackers to test the security defenses and response capabilities of an organization3. A business continuity plan testing is a process of verifying that an organization can continue its essential functions and operations in the event of a disaster or disruption4. A functional exercise is a type of security exercise that involves a realistic simulation of a security incident and requires the security team to perform their roles and responsibilities as if it were a real event.

References: 1: https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2022/volume-1/cybersecurity-incident-response-exercise-guidance  2: https://www.linuxjournal.com/content/security-exercises  3: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/red-team-blue-team/  4: https://www.ready.gov/business-continuity-plan : https://www.ready.gov/exercises

Isolating the device is the first thing that a security analyst should do if they suspect that a user’s device might be compromised. Isolating the device means disconnecting it from the network or placing it in a separate network segment to prevent further communication with potential attackers or malicious hosts. Isolating the device can help contain the incident, limit the damage or data loss, preserve the evidence, and facilitate the investigation and remediation.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/incident-response-process/

A reverse proxy backdoor is a malicious reverse proxy that can intercept and manipulate the traffic between the client and the web server3. This can allow an attacker to access sensitive data or execute commands on the web server.

One possible way to quickly contain the incident with the least amount of impact is to add the application hash to the organization’s blocklist. A blocklist is a list of applications or files that are not allowed to run on a system or network. By adding the application hash to the blocklist, the security engineer can prevent the malicious application from running and communicating with the reverse proxy backdoor.

Chain of custody is a process that documents the chronological and logical sequence of custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of materials, including physical or electronic evidence. Chain of custody is important to ensure the integrity and admissibility of evidence in legal proceedings. Chain of custody can help evidence collection assurance by providing proof that the evidence has been handled properly and has not been tampered with or contaminated.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.thoughtco.com/chain-of-custody-4589132

Telnet is an insecure protocol that transmits data in cleartext over the network. This means that anyone who can intercept the network traffic can read the data, including the username and password of the server administrator. A packet capture tool is a software or hardware device that can capture and analyze network packets. An attacker can use a packet capture tool to steal the password and use it to install malicious software on the server. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-network-security

A communication plan is a plan that would fulfill the requirement of keeping stakeholders at an organization aware of any incidents and receiving updates on status changes as they occur. A communication plan is a document that outlines the communication objectives, strategies, methods, channels, frequency, and audience for an incident response process. A communication plan can help an organization communicate effectively and efficiently with internal and external stakeholders during an incident and keep them informed of the incident’s impact, progress, resolution, and recovery.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.ready.gov/business-continuity-plan

Password history is a policy that prevents users from reusing their previous passwords. This can reduce the risk of password cracking or compromise. Geolocation is a policy that restricts users from logging in from certain locations based on their IP address. This can prevent unauthorized access from high-risk countries or regions. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-identity-and-access-management

PAM is a solution that enables organizations to securely manage users' accounts and access to sensitive systems. It allows administrators to create unique and complex passwords for each user, as well as assign each account to a single user for administrative duties. PAM also provides audit trails and logging capabilities, allowing administrators to monitor user activity and ensure that all systems are secure. According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Course Book, “PAM is the most comprehensive way to control and monitor privileged accounts”.

SDN stands for software-defined networking, which is an approach to networking that uses software-based controllers or application programming interfaces (APIs) to communicate with underlying hardware infrastructure and direct traffic on a network. SDN decouples the network control plane from the data plane, enabling centralized management and programmability of network resources. SDN can help an engineer use scripting to deploy a network in a cloud environment by allowing them to define and automate network policies, configurations, and services through software commands.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/software-defined-networking/overview.html

A community cloud model describes a scenario where a cloud service is shared among multiple organizations that have common goals, interests, or requirements. A community cloud can be hosted by one of the organizations, a third-party provider, or a combination of both. A community cloud can offer benefits such as cost savings, security, compliance, and collaboration. A police department using the cloud to share information with city officials is an example of a community cloud model.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/community-cloud

The NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) is a process for evaluating the security of a system and implementing controls to reduce potential risks associated with it. The RMF process involves categorizing the system, selecting the controls that apply to the system, implementing the controls, and then assessing the success of the controls before authorizing the system. For more information on the NIST Risk Management Framework and other security processes, refer to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book and Resources.

Tokenization replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive data, such as a unique identifier. This means that the data is still present in the system, but the sensitive information itself is replaced with the token. Tokenization is more secure than masking, which only obscures the data but does not eliminate it. DLP is not suitable for this task, as it is designed to prevent the loss or leakage of data from the system. SSL/TLS can be used to secure the transmission of data, but it cannot prevent the data itself from being exposed or reused. For more information, please refer to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives, Section 3.3: Explain the security purpose of authentication, authorization and accounting (AAA) services, and Section 4.7: Explain the purpose and characteristics of various types of encryption.

IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) is a technology that provides secure communication over the internet by encrypting traffic and authenticating it at both the sender and receiver. It can be used to create secure tunnels between two or more devices, allowing users to access resources securely and privately.

SSL VPN (Secure Sockets Layer Virtual Private Network) is a type of VPN that uses an SSL/TLS connection to encrypt traffic between two or more devices. It is a secure and reliable solution for providing remote access, as all traffic is encrypted and authenticated. Additionally, SSL VPNs can also be used to restrict access to certain websites and services, making them a secure and robust solution for remote access.

In Firewall 1, HTTP inbound Action should be DENY. As shown below

In Firewall 2, Management Service should be DNS, As shown below.

In Firewall 3, HTTP Inbound Action should be DENY, as shown below

A business continuity plan (BCP) is a document that outlines how an organization will continue its critical functions during and after a disruptive event, such as a natural disaster, pandemic, cyberattack, or power outage. A BCP typically covers topics such as business impact analysis, risk assessment, recovery strategies, roles and responsibilities, communication plan, testing and training, and maintenance and review. A BCP can help the organization’s executives determine their next course of action by providing them with a clear framework and guidance for managing the crisis and resuming normal operations.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.ready.gov/business-continuity-plan

 User-agent spoofing is a technique that allows an attacker to modify the user-agent header of an HTTP request to impersonate another browser or device12. User-agent spoofing can be used to bypass security controls that rely on user-agent filtering or validation12. In this case, the attacker spoofed the user-agent header to match the company’s mobile application, which was allowed to access the back-end server’s API2.

PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) is a commonly used encryption method for email communications to secure the sensitive data being sent. It allows for the encryption of the entire message or just the sensitive parts. It would be an appropriate solution in this case as it doesn't require additional infrastructure to implement.

An evil twin attack is when an attacker sets up a fake Wi-Fi network that looks like a legitimate network, but is designed to capture user data that is sent over the network. In this case, the user's laptop is constantly disconnecting and reconnecting to the Wi-Fi network, indicating that it is connecting to the fake network instead of the legitimate one. Once the user connects to the fake network, they are unable to access shared folders or other network resources, as those are only available on the legitimate network.

The total loss expected per year due to a threat targeting an asset can be calculated using the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) multiplied by the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). SLE is the monetary loss expected from a single event, while ARO is the estimated frequency of that event occurring in a year. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-501, 7th Edition, by Emmett Dulaney and Chuck Easttom, Chapter 9: Risk Management, page 414.

Continuous validation is a process that involves performing regular and automated tests to verify the security and functionality of a system or an application. Continuous validation can help identify and remediate vulnerabilities, bugs, or misconfigurations before they cause any damage or disruption. The security administrator’s activities of performing weekly vulnerability scans on all cloud assets and providing a detailed report are examples of continuous validation.

NIST CSF (National Institute of Standards and Technology Cybersecurity Framework) is a set of guidelines and best practices for managing cybersecurity risks. It is based on existing standards, guidelines, and practices that are widely recognized and applicable across different sectors and organizations. It provides a common language and framework for understanding, communicating, and managing cybersecurity risks. References: 1 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 7, Domain 1.0: Attacks, Threats, and Vulnerabilities, Objective 1.4: Explain the techniques used in security assessments 2 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 8, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.1: Explain the importance of secure staging deployment concepts 3 https://www.nist.gov/cyberframework

the cat command reads the file and streams its content to standard output. The | symbol connects the output of the left command with the input of the right command. The grep command returns all lines that match the regex. The cut command splits each line into fields based on a delimiter and extracts a specific field.

Nmap is a tool that is used to scan IP addresses and ports in a network and to detect installed applications. Nmap can help a security administrator determine the services running on a server by sending various packets to the target and analyzing the responses. Nmap can also perform various tasks such as OS detection, version detection, script scanning, firewall evasion, and vulnerability scanning.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://nmap.org/

Containers are a type of virtualization technology that allow applications to run in a secure, isolated environment on a single host. They can be quickly scaled up or down as needed, making them an ideal solution for unpredictable loads. Additionally, containers are designed to be lightweight and portable, so they can easily be moved from one host to another. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Sy0-601 official Text book, page 863.

 An authentication application can generate one-time passwords or QR codes that are time-based and unique to each user and device. It does not rely on network connectivity or SMS delivery, which can be intercepted or delayed. It also does not require the user to respond to a push notification, which can be accidentally approved or ignored.

A DLP solution in monitoring mode is a good first step to deploy for data loss prevention. It allows the IT team to observe and analyze the data flows and activities without blocking or interfering with them. It helps to identify the sources and destinations of sensitive data, the types and volumes of data involved, and the potential risks and violations. It also helps to fine-tune the DLP policies and rules before switching to blocking mode, which can disrupt business operations if not configured properly.

A VPN (virtual private network) is a secure tunnel used to encrypt traffic and prevent unauthorized access to the internal network. It is a secure way to extend a private network across public networks, such as the Internet, and can be used to allow remote users to securely access resources on the internal network. Additionally, a VPN can be used to prevent malicious traffic from entering the internal network.

LDAPS (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol Secure) is the most secure protocol to use for connecting to an Active Directory server, as it encrypts the communication between the client and the server using SSL/TLS. This prevents eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing of the authentication and authorization data. References: 1 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, Domain 3.0: Implementation, Objective 3.2: Implement secure protocols 2 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, Domain 3.0: Implementation, Objective 3.5: Implement secure authentication mechanisms 3 https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/windows/it-pro/w indows-server-2008-R2-and-2008/cc731033(v=ws.10)

Compensating controls are additional security measures that are implemented to reduce the risk of non-compliant controls. They do not fix the underlying issue, but they provide an alternative way of achieving the same security objective. For example, if a system does not have encryption, a compensating control could be to restrict access to the system or use a secure network connection.

Round-robin is a type of load balancing algorithm that distributes traffic to a list of servers in rotation. It is a static algorithm that does not take into account the state of the system for the distribution of tasks. It assumes that all servers have equal capacity and can handle an equal amount of traffic.

IPSec is a protocol suite that provides secure communication over IP networks. It uses encryption, authentication, and integrity mechanisms to protect data from unauthorized access or modification. IPSec can operate in two modes: transport mode and tunnel mode. In tunnel mode, IPSec can create a virtual private network (VPN) between two endpoints, such as external partners and internal networks. To establish a VPN connection, IPSec requires a pre-shared key (PSK) or other parameters to negotiate the security association. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-vpn

Content management is a policy that controls what types of data can be accessed, modified, shared, or transferred by users or applications. Content management can prevent data leakage or exfiltration by blocking or restricting certain actions, such as copying, printing, emailing, or sending data via SMS. If the user downloaded the images from a corporate email account on a work phone, the content management policy may prevent the user from sending the images via SMS to protect the confidentiality and integrity of the data. References: 1 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the importance of embedded and specialized systems security 2 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 12, Domain 3.0: Implementation, Objective 3.1: Implement secure network architecture concepts 3 https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-data-loss-prevention

Patch management is a process that involves applying updates or fixes to software to address bugs, vulnerabilities, or performance issues. Patch management is classified under corrective control type, which is a type of control that aims to restore normal operations after an incident or event has occurred. Corrective controls can help mitigate the impact or damage caused by an incident or event and prevent it from happening again.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.csoonline.com/article/2124681/why-third-party-security-is-your-security.html

 B. Constructing the secondary site in a geographically disperse location would ensure that a natural disaster at the primary site would not affect the secondary site. It would also allow for failover during traffic surge situations by distributing the load across different regions. D. Installing generators would provide protection against power surges and outages by providing backup power sources in case of a failure. Generators are part of the physical security requirements for data centers as they ensure availability and resilience. References: 1 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 8, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.1: Explain the importance of secure staging deployment concepts 2 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.3: Summarize secure application development, deployment, and automation concepts 3 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 11, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.5: Explain the importance of physical security controls

MAC filtering is a method of allowing or denying access to a network based on the MAC address of the device attempting to connect. By creating a list of approved MAC addresses, the organization can prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the network.

Network Access Control (NAC) is a security solution that allows organizations to restrict access to their networks based on the device's identity, configuration, and security posture. This can be used to ensure that only legitimate devices are allowed to connect to the network, and any unauthorized devices are blocked.

There are three main models for cloud computing: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Software as a Service (SaaS)12. Each model represents a different part of the cloud computing stack and provides different levels of control, flexibility, and management.

According to one source1, a public cloud is a type of cloud deployment where the cloud resources (such as servers and storage) are owned and operated by a third-party cloud service provider and delivered over the Internet. A public cloud can be shared with multiple organizations or users who pay for the service on a subscription or pay-as-you-go basis.

According to Professor Messer’s video1, VDI stands for Virtual Desktop Infrastructure and it is a deployment model where employees use their personal computers to access a virtual machine that runs the company’s operating system and applications.

In the scenario described, the company is implementing a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) deployment model [1]. This allows employees to access the cloud computing environment using their personal computers, while the company manages the operating system. The VDI model is suitable for remote work scenarios because it provides secure and centralized desktop management, while allowing employees to access desktops from any device.

Version control is a solution that can help a development team to analyze the deletion or editing of data sets without affecting the original copy. Version control is a system that records changes to a file or set of files over time so that specific versions can be recalled later. Version control can help developers track and manage changes to code, data, or documents, as well as collaborate with other developers and resolve conflicts.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.atlassian.com/git/tutorials/what-is-version-control

A standard naming convention policy would provide guidelines on how to label new network devices as part of the initial configuration. A standard naming convention policy is a document that defines the rules and formats for naming network devices, such as routers, switches, firewalls, servers, or printers. A standard naming convention policy can help an organization achieve consistency, clarity, and efficiency in network management and administration.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Network_Virtualization/PathIsolationDesignGuide/PathIsolationDesignGuide.pdf

Non-repudiation is the process of ensuring that a party involved in a transaction or communication cannot deny their involvement. By implementing non-repudiation controls, a cybersecurity analyst can properly track and log user actions, attributing them to a specific individual. This can be achieved through methods such as digital signatures, timestamps, and secure logging mechanisms.

References:

1. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601): https://www.comptia.jp/pdf/CompTIA%20Security%2B%20SY0-601%20Exam%20Objectives.pdf

2. Stewart, J. M., Chapple, M., & Gibson, D. (2021). CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601. John Wiley & Sons.

A server farm’s logs are records of events that occur on a group of servers that provide the same service or function. Logs can contain information such as date, time, source, destination, message, error code, and severity level. Logs can help administrators monitor the performance, security, and availability of the servers and troubleshoot any issues.

To determine the sequence of a server farm’s logs, the administrator should consider the following factors:

• Time stamps: Time stamps are indicators of when an event occurred on a server. Time stamps can help administrators sort and correlate events across different servers based on chronological order. However, time stamps alone may not be sufficient to determine the sequence of events if the servers have different time zones or clock settings.
• Time offset: Time offset is the difference between the local time of a server and a reference time, such as Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) or Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). Time offset can help administrators adjust and synchronize the time stamps of different servers to a common reference time and eliminate any discrepancies caused by time zones or clock settings.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/server-manager/view-event-logs

A service level agreement (SLA) is a contract between a service provider and a customer that outlines the services that are to be provided and the expected levels of performance. It is used to define the requirements for the service, including any attestations and reports that must be generated, and the timescales in which these must be completed. It also outlines any penalties for failing to meet these requirements. SLAs are essential for ensuring that third-party services are meeting the agreed upon performance levels.

TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a protocol that is used to encrypt data sent over HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure). In order for an intrusion detection system (IDS) and a web application firewall (WAF) to be effective on HTTPS traffic, they must be able to inspect the encrypted traffic. TLS inspection allows the IDS and WAF to decrypt and inspect the traffic, allowing them to detect any malicious activity. References: [1] CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601 [1], Sixth Edition, Chapter 11, "Network Security Monitoring" [2] CompTIA Security+ Get Certified Get Ahead: SY0-501 Study Guide, Chapter 7, "Intrusion Detection and Prevention"

Patch management is classified as a corrective control because it is used to correct vulnerabilities or weaknesses in systems and applications after they have been identified. It is a reactive approach that aims to fix problems that have already occurred rather than prevent them from happening in the first place.

Least privilege is a security principle that states that users and processes should only have the minimum level of access and permissions required to perform their tasks. This reduces the risk of insider threats by limiting the potential damage that a malicious or compromised user or process can cause to the system or data. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-least-privilege

A server farm’s logs are records of events that occur on a group of servers that provide the same service or function. Logs can contain information such as date, time, source, destination, message, error code, and severity level. Logs can help administrators monitor the performance, security, and availability of the servers and troubleshoot any issues.

To determine the sequence of a server farm’s logs, the administrator should consider the following factors:

• Time stamps: Time stamps are indicators of when an event occurred on a server. Time stamps can help administrators sort and correlate events across different servers based on chronological order. However, time stamps alone may not be sufficient to determine the sequence of events if the servers have different time zones or clock settings.
• Time offset: Time offset is the difference between the local time of a server and a reference time, such as Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) or Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). Time offset can help administrators adjust and synchronize the time stamps of different servers to a common reference time and eliminate any discrepancies caused by time zones or clock settings.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/server-manager/view-event-logs

A supply chain attack is a type of attack that involves compromising a trusted third-party provider or vendor and using their products or services to deliver malware or gain access to the target organization. The attacker can exploit the trust and dependency that the organization has on the provider or vendor and bypass their security controls. In this case, the attacker may have tampered with the patch for the security appliance and used it to exfiltrate data from the organization.

bluejacking is the sending of unsolicited messages over Bluetooth to Bluetooth-enabled devices such as mobile phones, PDAs or laptop computers. Bluejacking does not involve device hijacking, despite what the name implies. In this context, a human might say that the best answer to the question is B. BluJacking, because it is a method that can insert contacts without having physical access to the device.

Applying patches is the first step to lower the risk to the production hardware, as patches are updates that fix vulnerabilities or bugs in the software or firmware. Patches can prevent attackers from exploiting known vulnerabilities and compromising the production hardware. Applying patches should be done regularly and in a timely manner, following a patch management policy and process. References: 1 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.3: Summarize secure application development, deployment, and automation concepts 2 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the importance of embedded and specialized systems security 3 https://www.comptia.org/blog/patch-management-best-practices

 ARO stands for annualized rate of occurrence, which is a metric that estimates how often a threat event will occur within a year. ARO can help an IT manager estimate the mobile device budget for the upcoming year by multiplying the number of devices replaced in the previous year by the percentage increase of replacement over the last five years. For example, if 100 devices were replaced in the previous year and the replacement rate increased by 10% each year for the last five years, then the estimated number of devices to be replaced next year is 100 x (1 + 0.1)^5 = 161.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24866/annualized-rate-of-occurrence-aro

A wildcard certificate is a type of digital certificate that can be used to secure multiple subdomains under a single domain name. For example, a wildcard certificate for *.example.com can be used to secure www.example.com, mail.example.com, blog.example.com, etc. A wildcard certificate can make administration easier by reducing the number of certificates that need to be issued, managed, and renewed. It can also save costs and simplify configuration.

The most likely cause for the high number of findings is that the vulnerability scanner was not properly configured and generated a high number of false positives. False positive results occur when a vulnerability scanner incorrectly identifies a non-vulnerable system or application as being vulnerable. This can happen due to incorrect configuration, over-sensitive rule sets, or outdated scan databases.

https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/sy0-601-comptia-security-plus-course/

PKI is a security technology that enables secure communication between two parties by using cryptographic functions. It consists of a set of components that are used to create, manage, distribute, store, and revoke digital certificates. PKI provides a secure way to exchange data between two parties, as well as a trust provider to ensure that the data is not tampered with. It also helps to create a highly scalable solution, as the same certificate can be used for multiple parties.

According to the CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, “PKI is a technology used to secure communications between two external parties. PKI is based on the concept of digital certificates, which are used to authenticate the sender and recipient of a message. PKI provides a trust provider to ensure that the digital certificate is valid and has not been tampered with. It also provides a scalable solution, as multiple parties can use the same certificate.”

Homomorphic encryption is a cryptographic technique that allows data to be stored, accessed and manipulated while encrypted. Homomorphic encryption enables computations to be performed on ciphertexts, generating an encrypted result that, when decrypted, matches the result of the operations as if they had been performed on the plaintext. Homomorphic encryption can prevent the cloud service provider from being able to decipher the data due to its sensitivity, as the data remains encrypted at all times. Homomorphic encryption is not concerned about computational overheads and slow speeds, as it trades off performance for security and privacy. References:

• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-concepts-2/
• https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/research/wp-content/uploads/2018/01/security_homomorphic_encryption_white_paper.pdf
• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/symmetric-and-asymmetric-cryptography/

Salting and hashing are techniques that can improve the security of passwords stored in a database by making them harder to crack or reverse-engineer by hackers who might access the database12.

Salting is the process of adding a unique, random string of characters known only to the site to each password before it is hashed2. Hashing is the process of converting a password into a fixed-length string of characters, which cannot be reversed3. Salting and hashing ensure that the encryption process results in a different hash value, even when two passwords are the same1. This makes it more difficult for an attacker to use pre-computed tables or dictionaries to guess the passwords, or to exploit duplicate hashes in the database4.

SED stands for Self-Encrypting Drive, which is a type of hard drive that automatically encrypts and decrypts data using a built-in hardware encryption engine1. SEDs do not require any additional software or configuration, and they do not affect the performance or usability of the laptop2. SEDs also have a feature called Instant Secure Erase, which allows the user to quickly and securely wipe the data on the drive by deleting the encryption key1.

CIS benchmarks are best practices and standards for securing various operating systems, applications, cloud environments, etc. They are developed by a community of experts and updated regularly to reflect the latest threats and vulnerabilities. They can be used to update and reconfigure the OS-level security configurations to ensure compliance and reduce risks. 

Wireless jamming is a way for an attacker to disrupt a wireless network and create a denial of ser-vice situation by decreasing the signal-to-noise ratio at the receiving device. The attacker would need to be relatively close to the wireless network to overwhelm the good signal. The other options are not likely to cause a wireless network outage for users near the parking lot.

Federation is an access management concept that allows users to authenticate once and access multiple applications or services that trust the same identity provider. Open authentication is a standard protocol that enables federation by allowing users to use their existing credentials from one service to access another service. The company is most likely using federation and open authentication to safeguard intranet accounts and grant access to multiple sites based on a user’s intranet account. For example, the company could use an identity provider such as Azure AD or Keycloak to manage the user identities and credentials for the intranet account, and then use open authentication to allow the users to access other company-owned websites without having to log in again. References:

• https://www.keycloak.org/
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/connect/whatis-fed

Honey pots are decoy systems or resources that are designed to attract and deceive threat actors and to learn more about their motives, techniques, etc. They can be deployed alongside production systems to create an illusion of a vulnerable target and divert attacks away from the real systems. They can also collect valuable information and evidence about the attackers and their activities for further analysis or prosecution. 

Containment is the next step according to the incident response process after identifying affected devices that are running a malicious application with a unique hash. Containment involves isolating the compromised devices or systems from the rest of the network to prevent the spread of the attack and limit its impact. Containment can be done by disconnecting the devices from the network, blocking network traffic to or from them, or applying firewall rules or access control lists. Containment is a critical step in incident response because it helps to preserve evidence for further analysis and remediation, and reduces the risk of data loss or exfiltration

https://www.fortinet.com/resources/cyberglossary/incident-response

https://www.ibm.com/topics/incident-response

The last incremental backup that was conducted 72 hours ago would be the best option to restore the services to a secure state, as it would contain the most recent data before the ransomware infection. Incremental backups only store the changes made since the last backup, so they are faster and use less storage space than full backups. Restoring from an incremental backup would also minimize the data loss and downtime caused by the ransomware attack. References:

• https://www.comptia.org/blog/mature-cybersecurity-response-to-ransomware
• https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=HszU4nEAlFc

Security information and event management (SIEM) is a solution that collects, analyzes, and correlates logs and events from various sources such as firewalls, servers, applications, etc., within an organization’s network. It can centralize logs to create a baseline and have visibility on security events by providing a unified dashboard and reporting system for log management and security monitoring.

Tainted training data is a type of data poisoning attack that involves modifying or injecting malicious data into the training dataset of a machine learning or artificial intelligence system. It can cause the system to learn incorrect or biased patterns and produce inaccurate or malicious outcomes. It is the most likely reason for the inaccuracy of the system that is using information collected from third-party providers that have been compromised by an attacker.

A screenshot of a computer Description automatically generated with medium confidence

SPIM (Spam over Internet Messaging) is a type of VoIP-associated vulnerability that involves sending unsolicited or fraudulent messages over an internet messaging service, such as Skype or WhatsApp. It can trick users into clicking on malicious links, downloading malware, providing personal or financial information, etc., by impersonating a legitimate entity or creating a sense of urgency or curiosity. Vishing (Voice Phishing) is a type of VoIP-associated vulnerability that involves making unsolicited or fraudulent phone calls over an internet telephony service, such as Google Voice or Vonage. It can trick users into disclosing personal or financial information, following malicious instructions, transferring money, etc., by using voice spoofing, caller ID spoofing, or interactive voice response systems. 

Port 53 is the default port for DNS traffic. If the firewall is blocking port 53, then users will not be able to resolve domain names and will receive errors stating that the website could not be located.

The other options would not correct the issue. Setting an explicit deny to all traffic using port 80 instead of 443 would block all HTTP traffic, not just web traffic. Moving the implicit deny from the bottom of the rule set to the top would make the deny rule more restrictive, which would not solve the issue. Configuring the first line in the rule set to allow all traffic would allow all traffic, including malicious traffic, which is not a good security practice.

Therefore, the best way to correct the issue is to ensure that port 53 has been explicitly allowed in the rule set.

Here are some additional information about DNS traffic:

• DNS traffic is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses.
• DNS traffic is typically unencrypted, which makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping.
• There are a number of ways to secure DNS traffic, such as using DNS over HTTPS (DoH) or DNS over TLS (DoT).

Establishing persistence for future use is the next step that a network penetration tester should do after gaining access to a target machine. Persistence means creating a backdoor or a covert channel that allows the penetration tester to maintain access to the target machine even if the initial exploit is patched or the connection is lost. Persistence can be achieved by installing malware, creating hidden user accounts, modifying registry keys, or setting up remote access tools. Establishing persistence can help the penetration tester to perform further reconnaissance, move laterally to other machines, or exfiltrate data from the target network.

Availability zones are the most appropriate cloud feature to address the concern of resiliency in case a cloud provider’s data center or network connection goes down. Availability zones are physically separate locations within an Azure region that have independent power, cooling, and networking. Each availability zone is made up of one or more data centers and houses infrastructure to support highly available, mission-critical applications. Availability zones are connected with high-speed, private fiber-optic networks. Azure services that support availability zones fall into two categories: Zonal services – you pin the resource to a specific zone (for example, virtual machines, managed disks, IP addresses), or Zone-redundant services – platform replicates automatically across zones (for example, zone-redundant storage, SQL Database). To achieve comprehensive business continuity on Azure, build your application architecture using the combination of availability zones with Azure region pairs. You can synchronously replicate your applications and data using availability zones within an Azure region for high-availability and asynchronously replicate across Azure regions for disaster recovery protection.

Site-to-site VPN is a type of VPN solution that connects two or more networks or sites across the public internet in a secure and encrypted way. Site-to-site VPN can be implemented using VPN appliances, such as firewalls or routers, that can establish and maintain the VPN tunnel between the sites. Site-to-site VPN can support multiple users or devices that need to access resources on the other site without requiring individual VPN clients or software. Site-to-site VPN is the best solution to support the new remote office, as it can provide secure and seamless connectivity between the office network and the main network of the organization. Verified References:

• Virtual Private Networks – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.3 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/virtual-private-networks-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/ (See Site-to-Site VPN)
• VPN Technologies – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 3.2 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/vpn-technologies/ (See Site-to-Site VPN)
• Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security (See Domain 3: Architecture and Design, Objective 3.3: Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts.)

Capacity planning is the process of determining the resources needed to meet the demand for a service or product. It involves estimating the number of staff members required to sustain the business in the case of a disruption, as well as other factors such as equipment, space, and budget12.

Redundancy, geographic dispersion, and tabletop exercise are not directly related to determining the staff members needed for business continuity. Redundancy is the duplication of critical components or functions to increase reliability and availability2. Geographic dispersion is the distribution of resources across different locations to reduce the impact of a localized disaster2. Tabletop exercise is a simulation of a potential scenario that tests the effectiveness of a business continuity plan

A deterrent control is a type of security control that is designed to discourage potential intruders from attempting to access or harm a system or network. A deterrent control relies on the perception or fear of negative consequences rather than the actual enforcement of those consequences. A deterrent control can also be used to influence the behavior of authorized users by reminding them of their obligations and responsibilities. An example of a deterrent control is placing fake cameras around the building, as it can create the illusion of surveillance and deter potential intruders from trying to break in. Other examples of deterrent controls are warning signs, security guards, or audit trails. References:

• https://www.ibm.com/topics/security-controls
• https://www.f5.com/labs/learning-center/what-are-security-controls

SSH stands for Secure Shell, which is a protocol that can be used to securely transfer files over the internet. SSH uses encryption and authentication to protect the data in transit and ensure the identity of the sender and receiver. SSH can also support compression, tunneling, and port forwarding. SSH can be used to send files to a business partner by using a command-line tool such as scp or sftp, or by using a graphical user interface (GUI) tool such as FileZilla or WinSCP. SSH can also be used to remotely access and manage servers or devices over the internet. References:

• https://www.globalscape.com/solutions/secure-file-transfer
• https://www.jscape.com/blog/how-to-securely-transfer-large-files-over-the-internet

Jailbreaking is a process of bypassing or removing the manufacturer-imposed restrictions on a mobile device’s operating system, allowing users to install unauthorized applications, modify settings, etc. It is a primary security concern for setting up a BYOD program because it can expose the device and its data to malware, vulnerabilities, unauthorized access, etc. 

A network DLP (Data Loss Prevention) solution is a tool that monitors and controls the data that is transmitted over a network. It can inspect in-transit files on the enterprise network to search for PII (Personally Identifiable Information), credit card data, and classification words by using predefined rules and policies, and then block, encrypt, quarantine, or alert on any sensitive data that is detected or leaked. 

MDM stands for mobile device management, which is a solution that allows organizations to manage and secure mobile devices used by employees. MDM can help prevent data loss and leakage by enforcing policies and restrictions on the devices, such as encryption, password, app installation, remote wipe, and so on. MDM can also monitor and audit the device activity and compliance status. MDM can be the best mitigation strategy to prevent data leakage from an employee’s COPE tablet via cloud storage, as it can block or limit the access to cloud services, or apply data protection measures such as containerization or encryption. References:

• https://www.blackberry.com/us/en/solutions/corporate-owned-personally-enabled
• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-management/

CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) is a framework and a metric that provides a standardized and consistent way of assessing and communicating the severity levels of vulnerabilities. It assigns a numerical score and a vector string to each vulnerability based on various factors, such as exploitability, impact, scope, etc. It can help communicate to the leadership team the severity levels of the organization’s vulnerabilities by providing a quantitative and qualitative measure of the risks and the potential impacts. 

An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is the best solution to implement on the company’s network to detect and prevent suspicious attempts to access company resources. An IPS is a network security technology that continuously monitors network traffic for malicious or anomalous activity and takes automated actions to block or mitigate it. An IPS can also alert the system administrators of any potential threats and provide detailed logs and reports of the incidents. An IPS can help the company to improve its security posture and prevent data breaches, unauthorized access, or denial-of-service attacks. References:

• https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/cyberpedia/what-is-an-intrusion-prevention-system-ips
• https://www.forcepoint.com/cyber-edu/intrusion-prevention-system-ips

Code signing is a cryptographic process that allows software developers to digitally sign their code. This ensures that the code has not been tampered with since it was signed and that it came from a trusted source.

Testing input validation on the user input fields is important for preventing malicious code from being entered into a system. However, it does not address the authenticity of the code itself.

Performing static code analysis on the software can help to identify security vulnerabilities. However, it cannot guarantee that the code has not been tampered with.

Ensuring secure cookies are used is important for preventing unauthorized access to user data. However, it does not address the authenticity of the code itself.

Therefore, the most appropriate option to ensure the authenticity of the code created by the company is to perform code signing on the software.

Here are some additional benefits of code signing:

• It can help to prevent malware from being installed on users' computers.
• It can help to protect intellectual property.
• It can help to improve user trust.

A right-to-audit clause is a contractual provision that allows one party to audit the records and activities of another party to ensure compliance with security policies and standards. It can help a company monitor the ongoing security maturity of a new vendor by conducting annual security audits and identifying any gaps or issues that need to be addressed.

QUESTIO NO: 399

An organization has hired a red team to simulate attacks on its security pos-ture, which Of following will the blue team do after detecting an IOC?

A. Reimage the impacted workstations.

B. Activate runbooks for incident response.

C. Conduct forensics on the compromised system,

D. Conduct passive reconnaissance to gather information

Answer: B

A runbook is a set of predefined procedures and steps that guide an incident response team through the process of handling a security incident. It can help the blue team respond quickly and effectively to an indicator of compromise (IOC) by following the best practices and predefined actions for containment, eradication, recovery and lessons learned.

HSM stands for hardware security module, which is a physical device that is used to store and manage cryptographic keys in a secure and tamper-resistant manner. HSMs can provide high-performance encryption and decryption operations, as well as key generation, backup, and recovery. HSMs can also prevent unauthorized access or extraction of the keys, even by the cloud service provider or the HSM vendor. HSMs can enhance the protection of a critical environment that is used to store and manage encryption keys for a financial institution or any other organization that deals with sensitive data. References:

• https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security
• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/hardware-security-3/

Off-site replication is a process of copying and storing data in a remote location that is geographically separate from the primary site. It can ensure minimal downtime for organizations with critical computing equipment located in earthquake-prone areas by providing a backup copy of data that can be accessed and restored in case of a disaster or disruption at the primary site.

An evil-Twin attack is a type of wireless network attack that involves setting up a rogue access point that mimics a legitimate one. It can trick users into connecting to the rogue access point instead of the real one, and then intercept or modify their traffic, steal their credentials, launch phishing pages, etc. It is the most likely cause of the issue that users are experiencing slow speeds, unable to connect to network drives, and required to enter their credentials on web pages when working in the section of the building that is closest to the parking lot, where an external access point could be placed nearby.

Data owner is the role that is responsible for defining the protection type and classification type for a given set of files. Data owner is a person in the organization who is accountable for a certain set of data and determines how it should be protected and classified. General counsel is the role that provides legal advice and guidance to the organization. Risk manager is the role that identifies, analyzes, and mitigates risks to the organization. Chief Information Officer is the role that oversees the information technology strategy and operations of the organization

https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-roles-and-responsibilities/

A risk register is a document or a tool that records and tracks information about the identified risks and their analysis, such as likelihood, impact, priority, mitigation strategies, residual risks, etc. It can contain ranked and ordered information on the likelihood and potential impact of catastrophic events that may affect business processes and systems, while also highlighting the residual risks that need to be managed after mitigating controls have been implemented.

CMS (Cloud Management System) is a software or platform that allows an organization to manage and monitor multiple cloud services and resources from a single interface or console. It can optimize the incident response time by providing a centralized view and control of the cloud infrastructure and applications, and enabling faster detection, analysis, and remediation of security incidents across different cloud environments. 

A single point of failure is a component or element of a system that, if it fails, will cause the entire system to fail or stop functioning. It can pose a high risk and impact for business continuity and availability. A high availability pair is a configuration that involves two identical devices or systems that operate in parallel and provide redundancy and failover capabilities. It can remove the single point of failure by ensuring that if one device or system fails, the other one can take over its functions without interruption or downtime. 

MITRE ATT&CK is a knowledge base and framework that analyzes and categorizes threat actors and real-world events based on their tactics, techniques and procedures. It can help improve the incident response team’s process by providing a common language and reference for identifying, understanding and mitigating threats

Mobile device management (MDM) is a solution that allows an organization to manage, monitor, and secure mobile devices that are used by employees for work purposes. It can protect company information on user devices by enforcing policies and controls such as encryption, password, remote wipe, etc., and detecting and preventing unauthorized access or data leakage.

A business continuity plan is a document or a process that outlines how an organization can continue its critical operations and functions in the event of a disruption or disaster. It can include strategies and procedures for recovering or relocating resources, personnel, data, etc., to ensure minimal downtime and impact. The organization will most likely consult the business continuity plan when setting up offices in a temporary work space after its corporate offices were destroyed due to a natural disaster.

SSH key is a pair of cryptographic keys that can be used for authentication and encryption when connecting to a remote Linux server via SSH protocol. SSH key authentication does not require a password and is more secure than password-based authentication. SSH key authentication also does not require additional software installation on the client or the server, as SSH is a built-in feature of most Linux distributions. A business partner can generate an SSH key pair on their own computer and send the public key to the company, who can then add it to the authorized_keys file on the Linux server. This way, the business partner can access the Linux server without entering a password or installing any software

Reputation is the perception or opinion that customers, partners, investors, etc., have about a company or its products and services. It can affect the revenue and profitability of a company after a network breach, even if no intellectual property or customer information was stolen, because it can damage the trust and confidence of the stakeholders and reduce their willingness to do business with the company

CIS benchmarks are best practices and standards for securing various operating systems, applications, cloud environments, etc. They are developed by a community of experts and updated regularly to reflect the latest threats and vulnerabilities. They can be used to update and reconfigure the OS-level security configurations to ensure compliance and reduce risks

A wildcard certificate is a type of SSL certificate that can secure multiple subdomains under one domain name by using an asterisk (*) as a placeholder for any subdomain name. For example, *.company.com can secure www.company.com, contactus.company.com, quotes.company.com, etc.  It can work for all the existing applications and any future applications that follow the same naming conventions, such as store.company.com. 

A turnstile is a physical security control that regulates the entry and exit of people into a facility or an area. It can prevent unauthorized access, tailgating, etc., by requiring valid credentials or tokens to pass through

Web serverBotnet Enable DDoS protectionUser RAT Implement a host-based IPSDatabase server Worm Change the default application passwordExecutive KeyloggerDisable vulnerable servicesApplication Backdoor Implement 2FA using push notification

A screenshot of a computer program Description automatically generated with low confidence

This certificate property will meet the requirements because it has a wildcard at the secondary subdomain level (.app1.comptia.org), which means it can be used for any subdomain under app1.comptia.org, such as test.app1.comptia.org or dev.app1.comptia.org. It also has a validity period of less than one year, which means it will need to be rotated annually. The other options do not meet the requirements because they either have a wildcard at the primary domain level (.comptia.org), which is not allowed, or they have a validity period of more than one year, which is too long.

NAT (Network Address Translation) is a technique that allows a router to translate private IP addresses into public IP addresses and vice versa. It can preserve the use of public IP addresses assigned to equipment on the core router by allowing multiple devices to share a single public IP address. TLSv2 (Transport Layer Security version 2) is a cryptographic protocol that provides secure communication over the internet. It can enable “in transport” encryption protection to the web server with the strongest ciphers by encrypting the data transmitted between the web server and the clients using advanced algorithms and key exchange methods.

A SHA 2 signature is a cryptographic hash function that produces a unique and fixed-length output for any given input. It can provide non-repudiation during a forensics investigation by verifying the integrity and authenticity of a drive image and proving that it has not been altered or tampered with since it was created

MFA stands for multi-factor authentication, which is a method of verifying a user’s identity using two or more factors, such as something you know (e.g., password), something you have (e.g., token), or something you are (e.g., biometrics). MFA can prevent someone from using the exfiltrated credentials, as they would need to provide another factor besides the username and password to access the system or application. MFA can also alert the legitimate user of an unauthorized login attempt, allowing them to change their credentials or report the incident. References:

• https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security
• https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yCJyPPvM-xg
• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/multi-factor-authentication-5/

Surveillance systems are constantly scanned by internet bots and have the highest risk of attack in the case of the default configurations because they are often connected to the internet and use weak or default passwords that can be easily guessed or cracked by malicious bots. Internet bots are software applications that run automated tasks over the internet, usually with the intent to imitate human activity or exploit vulnerabilities. Some bots are used for legitimate purposes, such as web crawling or indexing, but others are used for malicious purposes, such as spamming, phishing, denial-of-service attacks, or credential stuffing. Security misconfigurations are one of the most common gaps that criminal hackers look to exploit. Therefore, it is important to secure the configuration of surveillance systems by changing the default passwords, updating the firmware, disabling unnecessary services, and enabling encryption and authentication.

https://www.cctvcameraworld.com/setup-ip-camera-sys tem-on-network/

Time-based one-time password (TOTP) and hardware token are authentication methods that rely on the possession factor, which means that the user must have a specific device or object in their possession to authenticate. A TOTP is a password that is valid for a short period of time and is generated by an app or a device that the user has. A hardware token is a physical device that displays a code or a password that the user can enter to authenticate. A passphrase (Option A) is a knowledge factor, while facial recognition (Option C), retina scan (Option D), and fingerprints (Option F) are all inherence factors.

https://ptgmedia.pearsoncmg.com/imprint_downloads/pearsonitcertification/bookreg/9780136798675/9780136798675_tea rcard.pdf

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yCJyPPvM-xg

Tailgating is a physical security threat that occurs when an unauthorized person follows an authorized person into a restricted area without proper identification or authorization. It can cause unauthorized individuals to roam the hallways after gaining access through badge readers installed for building access.

Virtual machines are software-based simulations of physical computers that run on a host system and share its resources. They can provide resiliency for legacy information systems that cannot be migrated to a newer OS due to software compatibility issues by allowing OS patches to be installed in a non-production environment without affecting the production environment. They can also create backups of the systems for recovery by taking snapshots or copies of the virtual machine files.

PowerShell is a scripting language and command-line shell that can be used to automate tasks and manage systems. PowerShell can also be used by malware to execute malicious commands and evade detection. The code snippet in the question is a PowerShell command that creates a new partition on disk 2, formats it with NTFS file system, and assigns it a drive letter C. This could be part of an attack that wipes out the original data on the disk or creates a hidden partition for storing malware or stolen data. References:

• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/scripting-and-automation/
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/storage/new-partition?view=windowsserver2022-ps

A full inventory of all hardware and software would help ensure a security analyst is able to accurately measure the overall risk to an organization when a new vulnerability is disclosed, as it would allow the analyst to identify which systems and applications are affected by the vulnerability and prioritize the remediation efforts accordingly. A full inventory would also help the analyst to determine the impact and likelihood of a successful exploit, as well as the potential loss of confidentiality, integrity and availability of the data and services. References:

• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/
• https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/certification/security-plus-risk-management-processes-and-concepts/
• https://www.comptia.org/landing/securityplus/index.html
• https://www.comptia.org/blog/complete-guide-to-risk-management

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is a non-profit organization that provides resources and guidance for improving the security of web applications. It can be the best resource for a software developer who is looking to improve secure coding practices for web applications by offering various tools, frameworks, standards, cheat sheets, testing guides, etc., that cover various aspects of web application security development and testing

Wireless Access Point

Network Mode – G only

Wireless Channel – 11

Wireless SSID Broadcast – disable

Security settings – WPA2 Professional

Smishing is a type of social engineering technique that involves sending fraudulent or malicious text messages (SMS) to a user’s mobile phone. It can trick the user into providing personal or financial information, clicking on malicious links, downloading malware, etc., by impersonating a legitimate entity or creating a sense of urgency or curiosity.

Wireshark is a tool that can analyze pcap files, which are files that capture network traffic. Wireshark can display the packets, protocols, and other details of the network traffic in a graphical user interface. Nmap is a tool that can scan networks and hosts for open ports and services. CURL is a tool that can transfer data from or to a server using various protocols. Neat is a tool that can test network performance and quality.

Credential stuffing is a type of attack that involves using stolen or leaked usernames and passwords from one website or service to gain unauthorized access to other websites or services that use the same credentials. It can exploit the common practice of reusing passwords across multiple accounts. It is the most likely attack that has been used to compromise the manager’s corporate account, given that the manager is using the same password across multiple external websites and the corporate account, and one of the websites recently experienced a data breach.

Pseudo-anonymization is a technique of replacing sensitive data with artificial identifiers or pseudonyms that preserve some characteristics or attributes of the original data. It can protect employee data while allowing the companies to successfully share this information by removing direct identifiers such as names, addresses, etc., but retaining indirect identifiers such as job roles, pay scales, etc., that are relevant for the comparison.

Push notifications are a type of technology that allows an application or a service to send messages or alerts to a user’s device without requiring the user to open the application or the service. They can be used for multi-factor authentication (MFA) by sending a prompt or a code to the user’s device that the user has to approve or enter to verify their identity. They can be non-disruptive and user friendly because they do not require the user to remember or type anything, and they can be delivered instantly and securely.

S/MIME stands for Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions, which is a standard for encrypting and digitally signing email messages. S/MIME can provide confidentiality, integrity, authentication and non-repudiation for email communications. S/MIME can encrypt the emails at rest, which means that the email contents are protected even if they are stored on the mail servers or the user inboxes. S/MIME can prevent email contents from being released should another breach occur, as the attacker would not be able to decrypt or read the encrypted emails without the proper keys or certificates. Verified References:

• Cryptography Concepts – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.8 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-concepts-2/ (See S/MIME)
• Mail Encryption - CompTIA Security+ All-in-One Exam Guide (Exam SY0-301) https://www.oreilly.com/library/view/comptia-security-all-in-one/9780071771474/sec5_chap14.html (See S/MIME)
• Symmetric and Asymmetric Encryption – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 6.1 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/symmetric-and-asymmetric-encryption/ (See S/MIME)

 A dump file is a file that contains the contents of memory at a specific point in time. It can be used for debugging or forensic analysis of a system or an application. It can reveal what was in the memory on the compromised server, such as processes, variables, passwords, encryption keys, etc.

An internet proxy is a server that acts as an intermediary between a client and a destination server on the internet. It can restrict web access and monitor the websites that employees visit by filtering the requests and responses based on predefined rules and policies, and logging the traffic and activities for auditing purposes

TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a cryptographic protocol that provides secure communication over the internet. It can protect the data transmitted between the website and the visitors from eavesdropping, tampering, etc. It is the most secure protocol to implement for a website that sells products online using a credit card.

Barricades and signage are the most cost-effective and time-efficient controls to deter intrusions at the perimeter of a restricted, remote military training area. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601, Chapter 7

The attack being conducted is an Evil twin attack. An Evil twin attack involves creating a rogue wireless access point (WAP) with the same Service Set Identifier (SSID) as a legitimate WAP to trick users into connecting to it. Once connected, the attacker can intercept traffic or steal login credentials. The successful login attempts with impossible travel times suggest that an attacker is using a stolen or compromised credential to access the external site to which the sensitive data is being downloaded. The non-standard DHCP configurations and overlapping channels of the WAPs suggest that the attacker is using a rogue WAP to intercept traffic. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam Domain 1.0: Attacks, Threats, and Vulnerabilities, 1.4 Compare and contrast types of attacks, p. 8

A phishing campaign is a simulated attack that tests a user's ability to recognize attacks over the organization's email system. Phishing campaigns can be used to train users on how to identify and report suspicious emails.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 2: Technologies and Tools, pp. 85-86.

The company is implementing privileged access management, which provides just-in-time permissions for administrative functions.

The suspicious activity reported by the application owner, combined with the recent compromise of the jump box and the use of NTLM authentication, suggests that an attacker is likely using a pass-the-hash attack to gain unauthorized access to the financial application. This type of attack involves stealing hashed passwords from memory and then using them to authenticate as the compromised user without needing to know the user's plaintext password. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 5

Shredding may be the most secure and cost-effective way to destroy electronic data in any media that contain hard drives or solid-state drives and have reached their end-of-life1. Shredding reduces electronic devices to pieces no larger than 2 millimeters2. Therefore, shredding is the most secure but least expensive data destruction method for data that is stored on hard drives.

PKI certificates are digital certificates that use public key infrastructure (PKI) to verify the identity and authenticity of a sender and a receiver of data1. PKI certificates can be used to secure web applications with HTTPS, which is a protocol that encrypts and protects the data transmitted over the internet1.

One of the properties of PKI certificates is the domain name, which is the name of the website or web application that the certificate is issued for2. The domain name can be either a specific name, such as app1.comptia.org, or a wildcard name, such as *.comptia.org2. A wildcard name means that the certificate can be used with multiple subdomains of a domain, such as payment.comptia.org or contact.comptia.org2.

Another property of PKI certificates is the validity period, which is the time span during which the certificate is valid and can be used3. The validity period is determined by the certificate authority (CA) that issues the certificate, and it usually ranges from one to three years3. The validity period can be checked by looking at the valid from and valid to dates on the certificate3.

Based on these properties, the certificate that will meet the requirements of rotating annually and only containing wildcards at the secondary subdomain level is A. HTTPS://*.comptia.org, Valid from April 10 00:00:00 2021 - April 8 12:00:00 2022. This certificate has a wildcard character (*) at the secondary subdomain level, which means it can be used with any subdomain of comptia.org2. It also has a validity period of one year, which means it needs to be rotated annually3.

Geofencing is a location-based technology that allows an organization to define and enforce logical access control policies based on physical location and proximity. Geofencing can be used to grant or restrict access to systems, data, or facilities based on an individual's location, and it can be integrated into a user's device or the infrastructure. This makes it a suitable solution for the pilot project to test the adaptive, user-based authentication method that includes granting logical access based on physical location and proximity.

The network analyst should enable Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) to allow users to connect to the wireless access point securely without having to remember passwords. WPS allows users to connect to a wireless network by pressing a button or entering a PIN instead of entering a password.

Choose Your Own Device (CYOD) is a deployment model that allows employees to select from a predefined list of devices. It provides employees with flexibility in device preference while allowing the company to maintain control and security over company data and infrastructure. CYOD deployment model provides a compromise between the strict control provided by Corporate-Owned, Personally Enabled (COPE) deployment model and the flexibility provided by Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) deployment model. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Securing Application, Data, and Host Security, 6.5 Implement Mobile Device Management, pp. 334-335

During a penetration testing exercise, the white team is responsible for acting as a referee and providing oversight and support to ensure that the testing is conducted safely and effectively. They may also be responsible for determining the rules and guidelines of the exercise, monitoring the progress of the teams, and providing feedback and insights on the strengths and weaknesses of the organization's security measures.

"Privilege escalation is the act of exploiting a bug, design flaw, or configuration oversight in an operating system or software application to gain elevated access to resources that are normally protected from an application or user." In this scenario, the red team was able to install malicious software, which would require elevated privileges to access and install. Therefore, the type of attack that occurred is privilege escalation. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, pages 111-112

Defense in depth is a resiliency technique that involves implementing multiple layers of security controls to protect against different types of threats. In this scenario, the NIPS likely provided protection at a different layer than the boundary firewall, demonstrating the effectiveness of defense in depth. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601)

A managed Power Distribution Unit (PDU) allows you to monitor and control power outlets on the rack. This will allow the security team to identify which devices are drawing power and from which outlets, which can help to identify any unauthorized devices. Moreover, with a managed PDU, you can also control the power to outlets, turn off outlets that are not in use, and set up alerts if an outlet is overloaded. This will help to mitigate the issue of power consumption overloads without compromising the number of outlets available.

Auto-update can help keep the app up-to-date with the latest security fixes and enhancements, and reduce the risk of exploitation by attackers who target outdated or vulnerable versions of the app.

Sandboxing can help isolate the app from other processes and resources on the system, and limit its access and permissions to only what is necessary. Sandboxing can help prevent the app from being affected by or affecting other applications or system components, and contain any potential damage in case of a breach.

Data loss prevention (DLP) solutions can prevent the accidental or intentional loss of sensitive data. DLP tools can identify and protect sensitive data by classifying and categorizing it, encrypting it, or blocking it from being transferred outside the organization's network.

A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) can be used to monitor and control access to cloud-based applications, including unsanctioned SaaS applications. It can help enforce policies that prevent access to high-risk SaaS applications and provide visibility into the use of such applications by employees. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives: 3.3 Given a scenario, implement secure mobile solutions.

Smishing is a type of phishing attack which begins with an attacker sending a text message to an individual. The message contains social engineering tactics to convince the person to click on a malicious link or send sensitive information to the attacker. Criminals use smishing attacks for purposes like:

Learn login credentials to accounts via credential phishing

Discover private data like social security numbers

Send money to the attacker

Install malware on a phone

Establish trust before using other forms of contact like phone calls or emails

Attackers may pose as trusted sources like a government organization, a person you know, or your bank. And messages often come with manufactured urgency and time-sensitive threats. This can make it more difficult for a victim to notice a scam.

Phone numbers are easy to spoof with VoIP texting, where users can create a virtual number to send and receive texts. If a certain phone number is flagged for spam, criminals can simply recycle it and use a new one.

A social engineering attack that relies on an executive at a small business visiting a fake banking website where credit card and account details are harvested is known as whaling. Whaling is a type of phishing attack that targets high-profile individuals, such as executives, to steal sensitive information or gain access to their accounts.

The company can use a wildcard certificate to secure its website if it is concerned with convenience and cost. A wildcard certificate can secure multiple subdomains, which makes it cost-effective and convenient for securing the various registered domains.

The retail company should use a wildcard certificate if it is concerned with convenience and cost12. A wildcard SSL certificate is a single SSL/TLS certificate that can provide significant time and cost savings, particularly for small businesses. The certificate includes a wildcard character (*) in the domain name field, and can secure multiple subdomains of the primary domain1

This scenario describes an influence campaign, where false information is spread to influence or manipulate people's beliefs or actions. In this case, the misinformation led eligible voters to avoid polling places, which influenced the outcome of the election.

To prevent such a breach in the future, the BEST control to use would be Password complexity.

Password complexity is a security measure that requires users to create strong passwords that are difficult to guess or crack. It can help prevent unauthorized access to systems and data by making it more difficult for attackers to guess or crack passwords.

The best control to use to prevent a breach like the one shown in the logs is password complexity. Password complexity requires users to create passwords that are harder to guess, by including a mix of upper and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. In the logs, the attacker was able to guess the user's password using a dictionary attack, which means that the password was not complex enough. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - Exam SY0-601

Crosscut shredders are used to destroy paper documents and reduce the risk of data leakage through dumpster diving. Dumpster diving is a method of retrieving sensitive information from paper waste by searching through discarded documents.

References:

• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 2

The best option that describes what is impacted the most by the hackers’ attack and threat would be D. Reputation. Reputation is the perception or opinion that others have about a person or an organization. Reputation can affect the trust, credibility, and success of a person or an organization. In this scenario, if the hackers send the unfavorable pictures to the press, it can damage the reputation of the Chief Executive Officer and the company, and cause negative consequences such as loss of customers, partners, investors, or employees.

Running a vulnerability scan is the final step to be performed prior to promoting a system to production. This allows any remaining security issues to be identified and resolved before the system is put into production. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 3

Geofencing is a technology used in mobile device management (MDM) to allow administrators to define geographical boundaries within which mobile devices can operate. This can be used to enforce location-based policies, such as ensuring that devices can be tracked and wiped if lost or stolen. Additionally, encryption can be enforced on the devices to ensure the protection of sensitive data in the event of theft or loss. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 7

Bug bounty is a type of testing in which an organization offers a reward or compensation to anyone who can identify vulnerabilities or security flaws in their network or applications. The outside security firm has agreed to pay for each vulnerability found, which is an example of a bug bounty program.

Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is a maintenance metric that measures the average time required to troubleshoot and restore failed equipment. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 4.6 Explain the importance of secure coding practices. Study Guide: Chapter 7, page 323.

The environment that utilizes dummy data and is most likely to be installed locally on a system that allows it to be assessed directly and modified easily with each build is the development environment. The development environment is used for developing and testing software and applications. It is typically installed on a local system, rather than on a remote server, to allow for easy access and modification. Dummy data can be used in the development environment to simulate real-world scenarios and test the software's functionality. References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/27561/development-environment

The Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a contract between the cloud service provider and the organization that stipulates the exact requirements for the cloud provider. It outlines the level of service that the provider must deliver, including the minimum uptime percentage, support response times, and the remedies and penalties for failing to meet the agreed-upon service levels.

A user should choose the .cer file format to share a public key for secure communication. A .cer file is a public key certificate that can be shared with third parties to enable secure communication.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 6: Cryptography, pp. 301-302.

A public key is a cryptographic key that can be used to encrypt or verify data. A public key file is a file that contains one or more public keys in a specific format.

There are different formats for public key files, depending on the application and the algorithm used. Some of the common formats are:

• .pfx: This is a file format that stores a certificate and its private and public keys. It is also known as PKCS#12 or Personal Information Exchange. It is used by some applications such as Microsoft Internet Explorer and Outlook to import and export certificates and keys.1
• .csr: This is a file format that stores a Certificate Signing Request, which is a message sent to a Certificate Authority (CA) to request a digital certificate. It contains the public key and some information about the identity of the requester. It is also known as PKCS#10 or Certification Request Syntax.2
• .pvk: This is a file format that stores a private key for Microsoft Authenticode code signing. It is used with a .spc file that contains the certificate and public key.3
• .cer: This is a file format that stores a certificate, which is a document that binds a public key to an identity. It is also known as DER or Distinguished Encoding Rules. It is used by some applications such as OpenSSL and Java to read and write certificates.4

Trusted Automated Exchange of Intelligence Information (TAXII) is a standard protocol that enables the sharing of cyber threat intelligence between organizations. It allows organizations to automate the exchange of information in a secure and timely manner. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 3.6 Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts. Study Guide: Chapter 4, page 167.

A captive portal is a web page that requires visitors to authenticate or agree to an acceptable use policy before allowing access to the network. By capturing visitors' MAC addresses and names, potential malicious activity can be traced back to a specific person.

Configuring the guest wireless network on a separate VLAN from the company's internal wireless network will prevent visitors from accessing company resources. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 4

The best option that will help to protect the PC from malicious files on the storage device would be A. Change the default settings on the PC. Changing the default settings on the PC can include disabling the autorun or autoplay feature, which can prevent malicious files from executing automatically when the storage device is plugged in. Changing the default settings can also include enabling antivirus software, updating the operating system and applications, and configuring user account control and permissions.

Bluesnarfing is a hacking technique that exploits Bluetooth connections to snatch data from a wireless device. An attacker can perform bluesnarfing when the Bluetooth function is on and your device is discoverable by other devices within range. In some cases, attackers can even make calls from their victim’s phone1.

Perfect forward secrecy would ensure that it cannot be used to decrypt all historical data. Perfect forward secrecy (PFS) is a security protocol that generates a unique session key for each session between two parties. This ensures that even if one session key is compromised, it cannot be used to decrypt other sessions.

Detailed Explanation: Password spraying is an attack where an attacker tries a small number of commonly used passwords against a large number of usernames. The goal of password spraying is to avoid detection by avoiding too many failed login attempts for any one user account. The fact that different usernames are being attacked from the same IP address is a strong indication that a password spraying attack is underway.

A security patch is a software update that fixes a vulnerability or bug that could be exploited by attackers. Security patches are essential for maintaining the security and functionality of systems and applications.

If the vulnerability that was used to exploit the server is present in historical vulnerability scan reports, and a patch is available for the vulnerability, it means that the patch was either not applied or was uninstalled at some point. A possible reason for uninstalling a security patch could be user impact, such as performance degradation, compatibility issues, or functionality loss.

The other options are not correct because:

• B. An adversary altered the vulnerability scan reports. This could be a possibility, but it is less likely than option A. An adversary would need to have access to the vulnerability scan reports and be able to modify them without being detected. Moreover, altering the reports would not prevent the patch from being applied or uninstalled.
• C. A zero-day vulnerability was used to exploit the web server. This is not correct because a zero-day vulnerability is a vulnerability that is unknown to the public or the vendor, and therefore has no patch available. The question states that a patch is available for the vulnerability that was used to exploit the server.
• D. The scan reported a false negative for the vulnerability. This is not correct because a false negative is when a scan fails to detect a vulnerability that is present. The question states that the vulnerability is present in historical vulnerability scan reports, which means that it was detected by previous scans.

According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 1.4 Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators to determine the type of attack:

“A security patch is a software update that fixes a vulnerability or bug that could be exploited by attackers.”

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.getastra.com/blog/security-audit/vulnerability-scanning-report/

An identity provider (IdP) is responsible for authenticating users and generating security tokens containing user information. A service provider (SP) is responsible for accepting security tokens and granting access to resources based on the user's identity.

The Center for Internet Security (CIS) uses six initial steps that provide basic control over system security, including hardware and software inventory, vulnerability management, and continuous monitoring to minimize risk in all network environments. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 1.1: Compare and contrast different types of security concepts.
• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, pages 15-16

Pass the hash is an attack technique that allows an attacker to authenticate to a remote server or service by using the hashed version of a user’s password, rather than requiring the plaintext password

If the systems are running unsecure protocols and the company that developed them is no longer in business, it is likely that there are no patches available to remediate the issue. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 1.6: Given a scenario, implement secure protocols.
• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, pages 35-36

A development environment is the environment that is used to develop and test software. It is typically installed locally on a system that allows code to be assessed directly and modified easily with each build. In this environment, dummy data is often utilized to test the software's functionality.

The final phase of an incident response plan is the post-incident activity, which involves examining and documenting how well the team responded, discovering what caused the incident, and determining how the incident can be avoided in the future. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 2.5 Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators to determine the type of attack. Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 225.

Federating user digital identities using SAML-based protocols enables Single Sign-On (SSO), which allows users to log in once and access multiple applications without having to enter their credentials for each one. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 1.3: Explain authentication and access controls.
• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, pages 41-42

Using static code analysis would be the best approach to scan the source code looking for unsecure practices and weaknesses before the application is deployed in a runtime environment. This method involves analyzing the source code without actually running the software, which can identify security vulnerabilities that may not be detected by other testing methods. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 6: Risk Management, pp. 292-295

A biometric scanner uses physical characteristics such as fingerprints to identify an individual user. It is used to ensure that only the authorized user is present when gaining access to a secured area.

In a forensic investigation, volatile data should be collected first, based on the order of volatility. RAM and Cache are examples of volatile data. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 11

Multifactor authentication (MFA) would be the best control to require from a third-party identity provider to help mitigate attacks such as credential theft and brute-force attacks. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 2

The security analyst is likely observing a Telnet session, as Telnet transmits data in plain text format, including usernames and passwords. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam SY0-601, 1.2 Given a scenario, analyze indicators of compromise and determine the type of malware.

The attack described in the question is known as a DNS hijacking attack. In this type of attack, an attacker modifies the DNS records of a domain name to redirect traffic to their own server. This allows them to intercept traffic and steal sensitive information such as user credentials.

To prevent this type of attack from occurring in the future, the company should implement C. DNSSEC.

DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions) is a security protocol that adds digital signatures to DNS records. This ensures that DNS records are not modified during transit and prevents DNS hijacking attacks.

The researcher is most likely using the MITRE ATT&CK framework. MITRE ATT&CK is a globally accessible knowledge base of adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) based on real-world observations. It helps security teams better understand and track adversaries by creating a named group, which aligns with the scenario described in the question. The framework is widely recognized and referenced in the cybersecurity industry, including in CompTIA Security+ study materials. References: 1. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601): https://www.comptia.jp/pdf/Security%2B%20SY0-601%20Exam%20Objectives.pdf 2. MITRE ATT &CK: https://attack.mitre.org/

MITRE ATT&CK is a knowledge base of adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) that are observed in real-world cyberattacks. MITRE ATT&CK provides a common framework and language for describing and analyzing cyber threats and their behaviors. MITRE ATT&CK also allows security researchers to create named groups that track specific adversaries based on their TTPs.

The other options are not correct because:

• A. The Cyber Kill Chain is a model that describes the stages of a cyberattack from reconnaissance to exfiltration. The Cyber Kill Chain does not provide a way to create named groups based on adversary TTPs.
• B. The incident response process is a set of procedures and guidelines that defines how an organization should respond to a security incident. The incident response process does not provide a way to create named groups based on adversary TTPs.
• C. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis is a framework that describes the four core features of any intrusion: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis does not provide a way to create named groups based on adversary TTPs.

According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 1.1 Compare and contrast different types of social engineering techniques:

“MITRE ATT&CK is a knowledge base of adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) that are observed in real-world cyberattacks. MITRE ATT&CK provides a common framework and language for describing and analyzing cyber threats and their behaviors.”

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://attack.mitre.org/

Detailed Explanation: WPA2-Enterprise can accommodate all of the requirements listed. WPA2-Enterprise uses 802.1X authentication to differentiate between users, supports the use of RADIUS for authentication, and allows for the use of dynamic encryption keys that can be changed without disrupting the users or requiring reauthentication. Additionally, WPA2-Enterprise does not allow for open SSIDs.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 7: Securing Networks, p. 317

Detailed Explanation: Data Loss Prevention (DLP) can help prevent employees from stealing data by monitoring and controlling access to sensitive data. DLP can also detect and block attempts to transfer sensitive data outside of the organization, such as via email, file transfer, or cloud storage.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 10: Managing Identity and Access, p. 465

High availability refers to the ability of a system or service to remain operational and available to users with minimal downtime. By ensuring high availability, the company can maintain good performance and ensure that users have access to the network services they need. High availability can also improve security, as it helps to prevent disruptions that could potentially be caused by security incidents or other issues.

Symmetric encryption allows data to be encrypted and decrypted using the same key. This is useful when the data needs to be accessed and manipulated while still encrypted. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 6

Implementing input validations will prevent code injection attacks by verifying the type and format of user input. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 8

A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. The systems analyst can use firewall rules to block connections from the ten IP addresses in question, or from the entire network block in the specific country. This would be a quick and effective way to address the issue of high connections to the web server initiated by these IP addresses.

The “From” line in the email header can be easily spoofed or manipulated by an attacker to make it look like the email is coming from the CIO’s email address. However, this does not mean that the email address is actually valid or that the email is actually sent by the CIO. A better way to check the email address is to hover over it and see if it matches the CIO’s email address exactly. This can help to spot any discrepancies or typos that might indicate a phishing attempt. For example, if the CIO’s email address is cio@company.com, but when you hover over it, it shows cio@compnay.com, then you know that the email is not authentic and likely a phishing attempt.

According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 documents, the correct answer option is A. Create an automated, monthly attestation process that removes access if an employee’s supervisor denies the approval12.

This option ensures that appropriate access is not disrupted but unneeded access is removed in a reasonable time frame by requiring supervisors to approve or deny the exceptions on a regular basis. It also reduces the manual workload of the security team and improves the compliance with the company policy.

MDM software is a type of remote asset-management software that runs from a central server. It is used by businesses to optimize the functionality and security of their mobile devices, including smartphones and tablets. It can monitor and regulate both corporate-owned and personally owned devices to the organization’s policies.

FDE stands for full disk encryption, which is a method of encrypting all data on a device’s storage. FDE can protect data from unauthorized access in case the device is lost or stolen.

If a company decides to allow its employees to use their personally owned devices for work tasks, it should configure MDM software to enforce FDE on those devices. This way, the company can protect its data from being exposed if the device falls into the wrong hands.

However, employees may be concerned about the loss of personal data if the company also enables the remote-wiping option in the MDM software. Remote wiping is a feature that allows the company to erase all data on a device remotely in case of theft or loss. Remote wiping can also affect personal data on the device, which may not be acceptable to employees.

Therefore, a possible compromise is to configure MDM for FDE without enabling the lock screen. This means that the device will be encrypted, but it will not require a password or PIN to unlock it. This way, employees can access their personal data easily, while the company can still protect its data with encryption.

The other options are not correct because:

• A. Enable the remote-wiping option in the MDM software in case the phone is stolen. This option may address the company’s concern about data loss, but it may not address the employees’ concern about personal data loss. Remote wiping can erase both work and personal data on the device, which may not be desirable for employees.
• B. Configure the MDM software to enforce the use of PINs to access the phone. This option may enhance the security of the device, but it may not address the company’s concern about data loss. PINs can be guessed or bypassed by attackers, and they do not protect data if the device is physically accessed.
• D. Perform a factory reset on the phone before installing the company’s applications. This option may address the company’s concern about data loss, but it may not address the employees’ concern about personal data loss. A factory reset will erase all data on the device, including personal data, which may not be acceptable to employees.

According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 2.4 Given a scenario, implement secure systems design:

“MDM software is a type of remote asset-management software that runs from a central server1. It is used by businesses to optimize the functionality and security of their mobile devices, including smartphones and tablets2.”

“FDE stands for full disk encryption, which is a method of encrypting all data on a device’s storage3.”

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.makeuseof.com/what-is-mobile-device-management-mdm-software/

A smart card is a physical device that contains an embedded integrated circuit chip that can store and process data. A smart card can be used as a second authentication factor, in addition to a password, to verify the identity of a user who wants to log in to company-owned devices. A smart card requires a smart card reader to access the data on the chip, which adds an extra layer of security. A smart card meets the requirements of the company because it does not involve a smartphone or any other device that is not allowed at the desks

The SIEM log shows that the user opened an email attachment named “Invoice.xlsx” and then executed a PowerShell script that downloaded and ran a malicious file from a remote server. This indicates that the attacker was able to bypass the application approve list by emailing a spreadsheet attachment with an embedded PowerShell in the file. This is a common technique used by malware authors to evade detection and deliver their payloads1.