SK0-005 Sample Questions Answers

A sniffer is a tool that captures and analyzes network traffic on a subnet or a network interface. It can help identify the source, destination, protocol, and content of the traffic and detect any anomalies or issues on the network. Verified References: [Sniffer], [Network traffic]

Active-active is a configuration in which both nodes of a redundant system respond to service requests whenever possible. It can improve the performance, availability, and load balancing of the system by distributing the workload among the nodes. However, it also requires more synchronization and coordination between the nodes to avoid conflicts or errors. Verified References: [Active-active], [Redundant system]

Disabling unneeded physical ports would prevent unauthorized devices from being connected to the server, such as an outside USB drive. Setting a BIOS password would restrict access to the boot settings and prevent unauthorized changes to the boot order. The other options would not address the risk of booting from an outside USB drive

This is the best command to find out which commands can be used by a user with sudo privileges because it lists the allowed and forbidden commands for a given user or role. The -l option stands for list, and the -U option specifies the user name. The output of this command will show what commands can be executed with sudo by that user on that server.References:https://www.sudo.ws/man/1.8.13/sudo.man.html

A per core licensing model is based on the number of processor cores in a server. This model is suitable for a data center that has a variable daily equipment count, as it allows for scaling up or down the number of cores as needed. A per core licensing model also provides better performance and efficiency than other models. Verified References: [Per Core Licensing and Basic Definitions]

The per-concurrent user licensing model is a type of licensing model that restricts the number of active sessions or connections to a software application at any given time. This means that multiple users can share the same license, as long as they do not access the application simultaneously. This model is often used for applications that are accessed intermittently or for a short duration by different users, such as remote access software, web-based applications, or testing tools12.

Push notifications are messages that are sent from an application or a service to a user’s device without requiring the user to open or request them. They can be used as a cost-effective technique for implementing MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) on servers by sending verification codes or approval requests to the user’s smartphone or tablet when they try to log in to the server. Verified References: [Push notifications], [MFA]

Kerberos is a network authentication protocol that uses tickets to allow clients and servers to prove their identity to each other. Kerberos relies on accurate time synchronization between the parties involved, as the tickets have expiration dates and timestamps. If the system clock of a Linux server is off by more than five minutes from the LDAP server or the domain controller, the Kerberos authentication will fail and generate errors. A local firewall is unlikely to block authentication requests if the server can communicate over the network and is configured correctly. The users’ passwords are not relevant if theyare known-working LDAP credentials. The server has access to the LDAP host if it can communicate over the network and is configured correctly. References:

https://access.redhat.com/documentation/en-us/red_hat_enterprise_linux/6/html/identity_management_guide/kerberos_errors

https://www.ibm.com/docs/en/aix/7.2?topic=authentication-kerberos-time-synchronization

Signal blocking is a technique that prevents or reduces the transmission of electromagnetic signals from a building to the outside. Signal blocking can be achieved by using materials that absorb, reflect, or scatter the signals, such as metal, concrete, or mesh. Signal blocking can protect the data center from eavesdropping, interference, or jamming by unauthorized parties1.

Camouflage is a technique that disguises or conceals the appearance of a building to make it less noticeable or identifiable from the outside. Camouflage can be achieved by using colors, patterns, shapes, or vegetation that blend in with the surrounding environment. Camouflage can protect the data center from detection, reconnaissance, or targeting by hostile parties

Something you have is one of the types of authentication methods that relies on a physical object or device that the user possesses to verify their identity. A token is an example of something you have, as it is a small device that generates a one-time password or code that the user enters during login. A token can be a hardware device, such as a key fob or a smart card, or a software application, such as an app on a smartphone or a browser extension. A token provides an additional layer ofsecurity to theauthentication process, as it prevents unauthorized access even if the user’s username and password are compromised1.

A DHCP reservation is a way to assign a specific IP address to a device based on its MAC address, which is a unique identifier for each network interface card (NIC). When the administrator replaced the NIC, the MAC address of the server changed, and the DHCP server no longer recognized it as the same device. Therefore, the DHCP server assigned a different IP address to the server, which was incorrect for the application. To fix this problem, the administrator needs to modify the DHCP reservation to use the new MAC address of the NIC, so that the server can get the proper IP address.

A WWNN (World Wide Node Name) is a unique identifier for a Fibre Channel node, which is a device that can communicate over a Fibre Channel network. A WWNN is not related to DHCP or IP addresses, and it is not used for DHCP reservations. Therefore, options B and D are incorrect.

Updating the local hosts file with the correct IP address (option C) is also incorrect, because it does not solve the problem of getting the correct IP address from the DHCP server. The hosts file is a local file that maps hostnames to IP addresses, and it is used to override DNS queries. However, it does not affect how the DHCP server assigns IP addresses to devices. Moreover, updating the hosts file manually on every device that needs to communicate with the server is not a scalable or efficient solution.

RAID 5 is a RAID level that uses disk striping with parity. It requires a minimum of three disks and can handle one disk failure. RAID 5 distributes the parity information across all the disks in the array, which improves the read performance and reduces the write penalty. The capacity of a RAID 5 array is (N-1) times the size of the smallest disk, where N is the number of disks in the array. Therefore, for six 4TB disks, the capacity of a RAID 5 array would be (6-1) x 4TB = 20TB, which meets the minimum disk space requirement of 19TB. RAID 5 also has the leastamount of disk space lost to RAID overhead among the options, as it only uses onedisk’s worth of space for parity

This is the best solution to prevent unauthorized files from being copied to the server via FTP because anonymous access allows anyone to log in to the FTP server without providing a username or password. Disabling anonymous access will require users to authenticate with valid credentials before accessing the FTP server.References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/iis/configuration/system.applicationhost/sites/site/ftpserver/security/authentication/anonymousauthentication

Open-source software is software that is freely available and can be modified and distributed by anyone. It usually requires very little technical support and has no licensing fees. Therefore, it would be the lowest cost solution for an application that does not need much support.References: https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 2.3)

This is the best description of a hybrid cloud model because it combines both private and public cloud resources. A private cloud is a cloud environment that is owned and operated by a single organization and hosted in its own data center. A public cloud is a cloud environment that is owned and operated by a third-party provider and hosted in its data center. A hybrid cloud allows an organization to leverage both types of cloud resources depending on its needs and preferences.References:https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/overview/what-is-hybrid-cloud-computing/

This is the most likely licensing type that will be used because volume licensing allows a single license key to be used for multiple installations of a software product. Volume licensing is typically used by organizations that need to deploy software to a large number of devices or users.References:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/licensing/licensing-programs/volume-licensing-programs

The most likely cause of this failure is that both power supplies were connected to the same power feed, which means that they both lost power when utility power was lost. To prevent this from happening, redundant power supplies should be connected to different power feeds, preferably from different sources, such as a UPS or a generator. Verified References: [Redundant Power Supply Best Practices]

The organization should retrieve the tapes from the cold site and test them to ensure they are properly maintained and usable during a DR scenario. A cold site is a location that has space and power for backup equipment, but no actual equipment installed or configured. The organization stores backup tapes of its servers at cold sites as a precaution in case of a disaster that affects its primary site. However, backup tapes can degrade over time due to environmental factors such as temperature, humidity, dust, or magnetic fields. Therefore, the organization should periodically retrieve the tapes from the cold site and test them on compatible equipment to verify their integrity and readability.

P2V (Physical to Virtual) is a method of converting a physical server into a virtual machine that can run on a hypervisor. This method can be used to replace 4U rack servers with VMs without losing any data, as it preserves the configuration and state of the original server. P2V can also reduce hardware costs, power consumption, and space requirements. Verified References: [What is P2V?]

Fire suppression systems are designed to extinguish or contain fires in a server room, but they can also damage the server equipment if they are not carefully researched and selected. For example, water-based fire suppression systems can cause electrical shorts and corrosion, while gas-based fire suppression systems can create thermal shock and reduce oxygen levels. Therefore, fire suppression systems must be compatible with the server environment and equipment.

Alerts are notifications that inform the technician or the team of any issues or events that occur on a server or a network. Alerts can be configured to trigger based on certain thresholds, such as CPU usage, disk space, memory utilization, or response time. Alerts can help the technician monitor and troubleshoot the server performance in real time. Verified References: [Alerts], [Server performance]

The solution the administrator implemented extended runtime. Runtime is the amount of time that a UPS can provide backup power to a server in case of a power outage. By installing additional batteries in the UPS, the administrator increased the capacity and duration of the backup power, allowing the server more time to shut down properly.

A S.M.A.R.T. error is an indication of a potential failure of a hard drive. S.M.A.R.T. stands for Self-Monitoring, Analysis and Reporting Technology and it is a feature that monitors the health and performance of hard drives. A hard drive test can help diagnose the issue and determine if the drive needs to be replaced.References: https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 1.1)

Per core licensing is based on the number of logical processors a server has. A logical processor is either a physical core or a virtual core created by hyperthreading. Per core licensing requires purchasing a license for each logical processor on the server. Verified References: [Per core licensing], [Logical processor]

The bootloader configuration file is used to specify which kernel version and options to use when booting the system. The first kernel stanza in the file is the default one that is loaded automatically. By editing this stanza and changing it to point to the last known-good kernel files, the administrator can boot the system with a working kernel and avoid any compatibility issues with the new kernel update. Verified References: [How To Change The Linux Kernel Version]

The correct answer is D. A virtual switch.

A virtual switch is a software-based network device that connects the virtual machines (VMs) in a virtual environment and allows them to communicate with each other and with the physical network. A virtual switch can also create and manage virtual LANs (VLANs), which are logical segments of a network that separate the traffic of different VMs or groups of VMs. A VLAN needs a DHCP server to assign IP addresses to the VMs that belong to it. A virtual switch can act as a DHCP relay agent and forward the DHCP requests from the VMs to the DHCP server on the physical network.This way, the VMs can receive correct IP addresses for their VLANs123

A virtual router is a software-based network device that routes packets between different networks or subnets. A virtual router can also create andmanage VLANs, but it is not necessary for a VM to receive a correct IP address.A virtual router can be used to provide additional security, redundancy, or load balancing for the VMs12

A host NIC is a physical network interface card that connects the host machine to the physical network. A host NIC can also support VLAN tagging, which allows the host machine to communicate with different VLANs on the network. However, a host NIC alone cannot ensure that a VM receives a correct IP address for its VLAN.The host NIC needs to be connected to a virtual switch that can relay the DHCP requests from the VMs to the DHCP server12

A VPN is a virtual private network that creates a secure tunnel between two or more devices over the internet. A VPN can be used to encrypt and protect the data traffic of the VMs, but it is not related to the configuration of VLANs or IP addresses.A VPN does not affect how a VM receives a correct IP address for its VLAN14

A vNIC is a virtual network interface card that connects a VM to a virtual switch or a virtual router. A vNIC can also support VLAN tagging, which allows the VM to communicate with different VLANs on the network. However, a vNIC alone cannot ensure that a VM receives a correct IP address for its VLAN.The vNIC needs to be connected to a virtual switch or a virtual router that can relay the DHCP requests from the VMs to the DHCP server12

Camouflage is an architectural reinforcement that is used to attempt to conceal the exterior of an organization. Camouflage is a technique of blending in with the surroundings or disguising the appearance of a building or facility to make it less noticeable or identifiable. Camouflage can reduce the visibility and attractiveness of a target for potential attackers or intruders. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.1: Given a scenario, apply physical security methods to a server.

The solution that is used for failover, providing access to all the services currently in use by an organization without having to physically move any servers or employees, is the cloud. The cloud is a term that refers to a network of remote servers that are hosted on the Internet and provide various services, such as storage, computing, networking, and applications. The cloud can be used for failover, which is a backup operation that automatically switches to a standby system or service in case of a failure or disruption of the primary system or service. By using the cloud for failover, an organization can ensure continuous availability and accessibility of its services without requiring any physical relocation or intervention.

The HCL stands for Hardware Compatibility List and it is a list of hardware devices that are tested and certified to work with a specific operating system. If a network card is not on the HCL for the OS, it may not function properly or cause compatibility issues. Therefore, verifying the network card is on the HCL for the OS should be the next step to troubleshoot this issue.References: https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 4.1)

The script that the technician is running is trying to connect to every port on the localhost (the same machine) using telnet, a network protocol that allows remote access to a command-line interface. The script mostly fails because most ports are closed or not listening for connections. However, the script succeeds on ports 80 and 443, which are the default ports for HTTP and HTTPS protocols, respectively. These protocols are used for web services and web browsers. Therefore, the technician should look for an unauthorized HTTP service on this server, as it may indicate a security breach or a misconfiguration. Looking for a virus infection on this server is also possible, but not the most likely source of the issue. Looking for an unauthorized Telnet service on this server is not relevant, as the script is using telnet as a client, not a server. Looking for an unauthorized port scanning service on this server is not relevant, as the script is scanning ports on the localhost, not on other machines. References:

https://phoenixnap.com/kb/telnet-windows

https://www.techopedia.com/definition/23337/http-port-80

https://www.techopedia.com/definition/23336/https-port-443

JBOD (Just a Bunch Of Disks) is a storage configuration that combines different types and sizes of hard drives into one logical unit without any RAID level or redundancy. It allows users to see all the drives within the unit as one large storage space.JBOD can utilize all the available capacity of the drives but does not provide any performance or fault tolerance benefits. Verified References: [JBOD], [RAID]

The most likely cause of the server crashing and the application being inaccessible is that the unauthorized software installed by the update is malware that corrupted the system files or compromised the security of the server. To restore access to the application while minimizing downtime, the administrator should scan and remove any malware from the server, and then reformat the server and restore the image from the latest back-up. This will ensure that the server is clean and has a working configuration of the application. Verified References: [How to Remove Malware from a Server]

The best practice for troubleshooting is to follow a logical and systematic process that involves identifying the problem, establishing a theory of probable cause, testing the theory, establishing a plan of action, implementing the solution, verifying functionality, and documenting findings. Since the problem occurred after a change in the server’s BIOS, the most likely cause is that the change was incompatible or incorrect for the OS. Therefore, the next step should be to reverse the latest change made to the server and reboot to see if that fixes the issue.References: https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 4.3)

iSCSI is a protocol that allows SCSI commands to be transmitted over IP networks, enabling remote access to storage devices. iSCSI uses IP addresses to identify and communicate with the storage array, so having multiple IP addresses for the array indicates that iSCSI is being used. eSATA, USB, and FC are other types of connections that use different protocols and connectors than iSCSI. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.0: Storage, Objective 3.1: Given a scenario, install and deploy primary storage devices based on given specifications and interfaces.

Reflective glass is an architectural reinforcement that attempts to conceal the interior of an organization by reflecting light and preventing outsiders from seeing inside. Reflective glass can also reduce heat and glare, and enhance the aesthetic appearance of a building. Reflective glass is often used in high-security facilities, such as data centers, government buildings, or corporate headquarters12

1: Server Architecture for CompTIAServer+ (SK0-004) | Pluralsight 2: Introducing the CompTIA Infrastructure Career Pathway

Password length is the first password policy that the administrator should implement to help mitigate the chance of a successful brute-force attack. A brute-force attack is a method of guessing passwords by trying all possible combinations of characters untilthe correct one is found. The longer the password, the more combinations there are, and the more time and resources it takes to crack it. Therefore, password length is a key factor in password strength and security.

GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a partitioning scheme that allows creating partitions on large hard drives (more than 2 TB). It supports up to 128 partitions per drive and uses 64-bit addresses to locate them. However, GPT is not compatible with older versions of Windows, such as Windows XP or Windows Server 2003, which use MBR (Master Boot Record) as the partitioning scheme. If a disk uses GPT, it may not be recognized or accessible by an older Windows server. Verified References: [GPT], [MBR]

RAID 5 is a RAID level that provides striping with parity, which means that data is distributed across all disks with one disk storing parity information for error correction. RAID 5 can tolerate one disk failure without losing data. RAID 5 provides the most storage as well as disk redundancy out of the four RAID levels given, since it only uses one disk for parity and the rest for data. For example, if four 200GB drives are used in a RAID 5 array, the total storage capacity would be 600GB (200GB x 3), while in RAID 0 it would be 800GB (200GB x 4), in RAID 1 it would be 200GB (200GB x 1), and in RAID 10 it would be 400GB (200GB x 2).References:https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_RAID_levels#RAID_5

Aggregation is the process of collecting, standardizing, and consolidating log data from multiple sources into a central location. Aggregation makes it easier to search, analyze, and report on log data, as well as to comply with security policies and regulations. By aggregating logs from all servers, regardless of their state, the corporate policy can ensure that no log data is lost or inaccessible in case of a server failure or outage

A method of application hardening is installing the latest patches. Application hardening is a process of reducing the attack surface and vulnerabilities of an application by applying security measures and best practices. Installing the latest patches is one way to harden an application, as patches are updates that fix bugs, errors, or security issues in an application. By installing the latest patches, an application can be protected from known exploits or threats.

Changing the boot order on the server and restricting console access would prevent unauthorized access attempts via USB devices at startup, as the server would not boot from any external media and only authorized users could access the console. Setting a BIOS/UEFI password on the server would also help, but it could be bypassed by resetting the CMOS battery or using a backdoor password. Configuring the host OS to deny login attempts via USB would not prevent booting from a malicious USB device that could compromise the system before the OS loads. Disabling all the USB ports on the server would limit functionality, as some peripherals or devices may need to use them. References:

https://www.pcmag.com/how-to/dont-plug-it-in-how-to-prevent-a-usb-attack

https://www.techopedia.com/definition/10362/boot-order

https://www.techopedia.com/definition/10361/console-access

https://www.techopedia.com/definition/102/bios-password

https://www.techopedia.com/definition/10363/cmos-battery

The port that should be disabled on the firewall is port 3389. Port 3389 is used by Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP), which is a protocol that allows remote access and control of a Windows system through a graphical user interface. RDP can pose a security risk if it is not properly configured or secured, as it can expose the system to unauthorized or malicious access from external sources. Therefore, port 3389 should be disabled on the firewall unless it is needed for legitimate purposes.

InBash(a Unix/Linux shell scripting language), it is common to include theshebang (#!) followed by the path to the interpreter(e.g., #!/bin/bash) on the first line of the script. This tells the operating system which interpreter to use to execute the script.

Bash (Answer C):Bash scripts often start with a shebang line that specifies the path to the binary (#!/bin/bash).

Batch (Option A):Batch scripts (used in Windows) do not require a path to the interpreter on the first line.

Java (Option B):Java is a compiled language, not a scripting language, so this does not apply.

PowerShell (Option D):PowerShell scripts (.ps1 files) do not typically require specifying the interpreter path on the first line.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is related toSK0-005 Objective 1.1: Understand scripting basics and the use of interpreters.

A backdoor is a security risk that provides unauthorized access to an application. A backdoor is a hidden or undocumented way of bypassing the normal authentication or encryption mechanisms of an application, allowing an attacker to gain remote access, execute commands, or steal data. A backdoor can be created intentionally by the developer, maliciously by an attacker, or unintentionally by a programming error. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.2: Given a scenario, apply logical access control methods.

A subscription license is a type of license that grants the user the right to use a product or service for a fixed period of time, usually a year. The user pays a recurring fee, regardless of how much they use the product or service. Subscription licenses are common for cloud-based software and services, such as Microsoft 3651 or DocuSign2.

References = 1: Compare All Microsoft 365 Plans (Formerly Office 365) - Microsoft Store(https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/buy/compare-all-microsoft-365-products) 2: DocuSign Pricing | eSignature Plans for Personal & Business(https://ecom.docusign.com/plans-and-pricing/esignature)

A public cloud model will most likely meet the need of eliminating all company-owned data centers. A public cloud is a type of cloud computing service that is provided by a third-party vendor over the internet. A public cloud offers scalability, flexibility, and cost-effectiveness for hosting servers and applications, as the customers only pay for the resources they use and do not have to maintain their own infrastructure. A public cloud can also provide high availability, security, and performance for the servers and applications, as the vendor manages the underlying hardware and software. A public cloud can support various types of services, such as software as a service (SaaS), platform as a service (PaaS), or infrastructure as a service (IaaS). References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 1.0: Server Administration, Objective 1.2: Given a scenario, compare and contrast server roles and requirements for each.

Overprovisioningrefers to allocating more resources (e.g., CPU, memory) to virtual machines on a hypervisor than the physical host actually has available. This is done because not all virtual machines are likely to use their maximum resources simultaneously. Overprovisioning helps optimize resource utilization on a hypervisor but must be managed carefully to avoid performance degradation.

Overprovisioning (Answer B):It allows for more efficient use of resources, but overcommitting too much can lead to performance issues.

Direct access (Option A):Refers to direct hardware access, which is unrelated to resource allocation.

Link aggregation (Option C):Refers to combining multiple network connections, unrelated to hypervisor resources.

Component redundancy (Option D):Refers to using backup components for fault tolerance, not related to overprovisioning.

Scalability (Option E):Refers to the ability to increase or decrease resources as needed but doesn't describe overcommitting resources.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered underSK0-005 Objective 1.3: Explain virtualization concepts and benefits.

Resource Monitoris a tool that allows administrators to monitor the system's CPU, memory, disk, and network usage in real-time, ensuring that maximum resources are being efficiently utilized.

Resource Monitor (Answer D):This tool provides real-time insights into resource utilization and can help ensure resources are not under- or over-utilized.

Overprovisioning (Option A):Refers to allocating more resources than physically available but doesn't directly monitor resource usage.

Scalability (Option B):Refers to the ability to increase or decrease resources based on demand.

Thin clients (Option C):Refer to lightweight computers that depend on servers for processing power, unrelated to resource utilization monitoring.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is related toSK0-005 Objective 2.4: Monitor server performance.

The loud noises from the servers are most likely caused by failing hard disk drives, which can produce clicking or grinding sounds. Replacing the drives with new ones can prevent data loss and downtime. Replacing the drives can be done without shutting down the server if they are hot-swappable, which means they can be removed and inserted while the server is running. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.0: Storage, Objective 3.1: Given a scenario, install, deploy, configure and update physical storage devices.

Tailgating is a security breach where an unauthorized person follows an authorized individual into a secured area without proper credentials. To prevent tailgating, implementing an access control vestibule, also known as a mantrap, is highly effective.

An access control vestibule is a small room with two interlocking doors, where the first door must close and lock before the second door can be opened. This setup ensures that only one person can enter the secured area at a time, effectively preventing unauthorized individuals from gaining access by following someone else.

Other Options:

B. Cameras: While surveillance cameras can monitor and record entrances, they do not physically prevent tailgating. They serve as a deterrent and provide evidence after an incident has occurred but do not stop unauthorized entry in real-time.

C. Bollards: Bollards are physical barriers used to prevent vehicular access to certain areas. They are not effective in preventing unauthorized individuals from tailgating into a building or secured area.

D. Biometrics: Biometric systems (e.g., fingerprint or retina scanners) verify the identity of individuals but do not address the issue of someone following an authorized person through an open door. Without physical barriers like an access control vestibule, tailgating can still occur even with biometric systems in place.

Therefore, the most effective measure to prevent tailgating is the implementation of an access control vestibule.

Using a network-based deployment, such as network booting (PXE - Preboot Execution Environment) or imaging through a server, is the most efficient way to load operating systems onto multiple machines simultaneously. This approach minimizes the manual intervention required for each device, as the administrator can initiate the operating system installation or imaging process across all desktops at once through the network. In contrast, using an SDcard, DVD (Optical), or USB would require the administrator to physically move the media from one desktop to another, significantly increasing the setup time for each device.

Port 443 is used for HTTPS, which is a secure version of HTTP that encrypts the data between the web server and the client. Port 3389 is used for RDP, which is a protocol that allows remote desktop connections to a server. These ports should be allowed for a secure web server that can be administered via RDP.

Port 69 is used for TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol), which is an insecure and unencrypted protocol for file transfer. Port 1010 is used for a malicious website that generates pop-up ads. Both of these ports are likely to be exploited by hackers or malware to compromise the server or the web application. The server administrator should close these ports and rerun the scan to verify that they are no longer open12.

References = 1: Why Are Some Network Ports Risky, And How Do You Secure Them? - How-To Geek(https://www.howtogeek.com/devops/why-are-some-ports-risky-and-how-do-you-secure-them/) 2: Switchport Port Security Explained With Examples - ComputerNetworkingNotes(https://www.computernetworkingnotes.com/ccna-study-guide/switchport-port-security-explained-with-examples.html)

The most likely reason for this result is that there is a manual entry in the hosts file that maps the FQDN to an incorrect IP address (104.18.17.32). The hosts file is a text file that contains mappings of hostnames or domain names to IP addresses, which are used by the operating system to resolve names before querying DNS servers on the network or internet. The hosts file can be used to override DNS settings or block access to certain websites by redirecting them to different IP addresses, such as localhost (127.O.O.l) or invalid addresses (O.O.O.O). If there is a manual entry in the hosts file that conflicts with DNS records, it can cause name resolution errors or connectivity issues. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0: Networking, Objective 4.l: Given a scenario, configure network settings for servers.

Link aggregation is a technique that allows multiple network interfaces to act as one logical interface, increasing the bandwidth and redundancy of the connection. This can improve the load balancing of network traffic without requiring any new hardware or software. Round robin, most recently used, and heartbeat are not load balancing methods, but rather scheduling algorithms or monitoring techniques. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0: Networking, Objective 2.3: Given a scenario, configure NIC teaming.

When a virtual server crashes and presents a Purple Screen of Death (PSOD), the immediate response should be to document the incident. Collecting a screenshot of the PSOD is crucial as it contains error codes and state information that can be used for diagnosing the root cause of the crash. Noting the details, especially those that come after the line detailing the OS version, can provide specific clues to what might have caused the server to crash. This is a standard best practice before rebooting the server, as it ensures that there is a record of the event to investigate and potentially prevent future occurrences. A hard reboot should only be done after this critical information has been recorded.

If drive C is running out of space and there isunallocated spaceavailable on the disk, the best solution is topartition the unallocated spaceand extend drive C to include the new partition. This can be done without significant downtime and will immediately provide more space for the system.

Partition the unallocated space (Answer E):This is the simplest and least disruptive method to increase the available space on drive C.

Decreasing the page/swap file (Option A):This may free up some space but can negatively impact system performance.

Reformatting (Option B):Reformatting would result in significant downtime and data loss, making it an impractical option.

Whole disk encryption (Option C):This does not solve the issue of disk space.

Enforcing disk quotas (Option D):Disk quotas manage space usage but won’t free up space on drive C.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered underSK0-005 Objective 3.3: Troubleshoot common server problems.

Scope-based authentication is a method of restricting access to resources based on the location, network, or device of the user. It can be used to prevent unauthorized access from outside the organization’s network or from untrusted devices. In this case, the user can connect to the database server from the home office, which is likely within the scope of the authentication policy, but not from the hotel room, which is outside the scope.

Link aggregation is the best option to implement on the new server to ensure the least amount of network downtime but a good amount of network speed. Link aggregation is a technique of combining multiple physical network interfaces into one logical interface to increase bandwidth, redundancy, and load balancing. Link aggregation can improve the performance and availability of the server by allowing it to use more than one network path for data transmission and failover in case of link failure. Link aggregation can be implemented using various protocols, such as IEEE 802.3ad (LACP), Cisco EtherChannel, or Linux bonding. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0: Networking, Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, configure network settings for servers.

TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) is a simple and lightweight protocol that can be used to transfer files over a network. TFTP is often used to upgrade firmware or software on network devices, such as routers, switches, or servers. TFTP can also be used to install a Type 1 hypervisor, such as VMware ESXi, on multiple hosts simultaneously12.

References = 1: How to Install VMware ESXi Type 1 Hypervisor - MatthewEaton.net(https://mattheweaton.net/posts/how-to-install-vmware-esxi-type-1-hypervisor/) 2: Explore Type 1 Hypervisors - Set Up Virtual Machines Using VirtualBox and vSphere - OpenClassrooms(https://openclassrooms.com/en/courses/7163136-set-up-virtual-machines-using-virtualbox-and-vsphere/7358546-explore-type-1-hypervisors)

A faulty PSU needs replacement, and the management team wants a solution to prevent future downtime.

Solution: Implement redundancy (Option D):

Redundant power supplies ensure that if one fails, the other takes over seamlessly.

Separate circuits, load balancing, and server monitoring are important but do not directly prevent PSU failures.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Blade enclosures are designed to maximize server density by housing multiple blade servers within a single chassis. This design minimizes the physical footprint compared to traditional rack-mounted servers. Key benefits include:​

Space Efficiency: Multiple servers share power, cooling, and networking within a compact enclosure.​

Simplified Management: Centralized management of power, cooling, and networking simplifies administration.​

Scalability: Easily add or replace blade servers without significant reconfiguration.​

The concept of authentication is rooted in the principle of verifying identity, which is commonly broken down into three categories: "something you know" (like a password or PIN), "something you have" (such as a smart card or a security token), and "something you are" (biometric data, for example, fingerprints). The question asks for the authentication type defined by "something you have."

The error message "Configuring Memory..." and the fact that the server is stuck at this point strongly suggest thata DIMM (memory module) has failed. Memory issues are commonly diagnosed when servers hang during the memory configuration phase of boot.

DIMM failure (Answer A):When a memory module fails, the server can get stuck at the memory initialization process during boot.

VRAM insufficiency (Option B):VRAM (video memory) issues would typically cause display-related errors, not memory configuration issues.

RAID cache failure (Option C):RAID cache issues would lead to storage errors but not prevent the system from configuring memory.

BIOS update (Option D):While BIOS issues can cause boot failures, the error message suggests a memory-specific issue.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic relates toSK0-005 Objective 3.3: Diagnose hardware problems.

After an update, if a core service fails to start, potential causes include dependencies, authentication, or incomplete updates:

The server requires another reboot to complete the rollback (A): Some updates require multiple reboots, but if rolling back did not resolve the issue, a missing dependency is more likely.

The administrator is not authorized to run the service (B): If the administrator previously had access and the update broke the service, it is likely due to software conflicts rather than permissions.

The server requires further updates of other software components (C): Many services rely on dependent libraries, drivers, or patches. If an update replaces or removes a necessary component, the service may fail until additional updates are applied.

The account used to run the service has expired (D): Expired accounts usually cause authentication failures but not outright service crashes unless explicitly required for the update process.

Since rolling back the update did not fix the issue, the most likely reason is that additional updates or dependencies are missing.

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation with all CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Study Guide References:The most likely cause of a speed mismatch (100Mbps instead of 1Gbps) is a defective or incompatible network cable. Gigabit Ethernet requires at least Cat5e or Cat6 cables; using older cables (e.g., Cat5) or damaged cables can limit speeds to 100Mbps.

Port securityandVLAN misconfigurationwould typically prevent communication entirely, not reduce speed.

Incorrect IP subnetdoes not affect link speed.Checking and replacing the network cable is a logical first troubleshooting step in this scenario.

The most likely issue that prevents the newly added server from seeing any of the LUNs on the SAN is that a single-mode fiber cable is used in place of multimode. A single-mode fiber cable is a type of optical fiber cable that has a small core diameter and allows only one mode of light to propagate through it. A single-mode fiber cable can transmit data over long distances at high speeds, but it requires more expensive transceivers and connectors than multimode fiber cables. A multimode fiber cable is a type of optical fiber cable that has a larger core diameter and allows multiple modes of light to propagate through it. A multimode fiber cable can transmit data over short distances at lower speeds than single-mode fiber cables, but it is more compatible and cost-effective than single-mode fiber cables. If a single-mode fiber cable is used in place of multimode, it can cause signal loss, attenuation, or mismatch between the devices. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 3.0: Storage, Objective 3.2: Given a scenario, compare and contrast various storage technologies.

A headless installation is an installation method that does not require a graphical user interface (GUI) or a monitor, keyboard, and mouse. It can be done remotely through a network connection or a command-line interface. A headless installation is suitable for a server that has limited resources and does not need a GUI.

Off-site storage involves storing data backups in a physically separate location from where the servers and primary data reside. This protects critical data in case the main site is damaged or destroyed due to a natural disaster, such as floods, fires, or earthquakes. Off-site storage can be in the form of cloud storage or physical tapes stored in a geographically distant location.

Off-site storage (Answer A):It ensures that a company's critical data remains accessible even if the local infrastructure is compromised. This is a common part of disaster recovery planning and is crucial for business continuity.

Life-cycle management (Option B):While important for managing data from creation to deletion, it does not specifically protect data during disasters.

Environmental controls (Option C):These manage physical conditions like temperature and humidity but do not address the risk of data loss during disasters.

Data-at-rest encryption (Option D):Encryption protects the confidentiality of stored data but does not ensure availability in the event of a disaster.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered underSK0-005 Objective 4.1: Summarize disaster recovery methods and concepts.

Understanding different backup types is crucial for effective data protection strategies. Here's a breakdown of the relevant backup methods:

Full Backup: Captures all data, regardless of previous backups.

Differential Backup: Backs up data that has changed since the last full backup.

Incremental Backup: Backs up data that has changed since the last backup, whether it was full or incremental.

Snapshot: Captures the state of a system at a specific point in time.

A Differential Backup starts with a full backup. Subsequent differential backups save copies of all files that have been modified since that full backup. This means each differential backup includes all changes made since the last full backup, leading to larger backup sizes over time but faster restoration, as only the last full backup and the latest differential backup are needed.

In contrast, an Incremental Backup also begins with a full backup, but each subsequent backup only includes data that has changed since the most recent backup (whether full or incremental). This approach results in smaller backup sizes and quicker backup processes. However, restoration can be slower and more complex, as it requires the last full backup and all subsequent incremental backups to fully restore data.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. Differential, as it specifically refers to backing up files that have changed since the last full backup.

Archive is a method of storing historical data that is not frequently accessed or modified. Archive can reduce the amount of data that needs to be backed up and save bandwidth and storage space. Differential is a method of backing up only the data that has changed since the last full backup. Differential can also save bandwidth and storage space, as well as speed up the backup process.

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation with all CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Study Guide References:Blanking panelsare used to fill empty spaces in server racks. By blocking airflow gaps between servers, blanking panels help to direct airflow properly, ensuring that the cold air from the cold aisle is not wasted and that the hot air from the hot aisle is contained. This is crucial for maintaining the efficiency of cooling systems in a hot/cold aisle configuration.

Rack balancingaddresses the physical distribution of equipment, but it does not directly address thermal issues.

Higher-capacity PDUs(Power Distribution Units) provide more power, but they do not address cooling or airflow problems.

Rail kitsare used for mounting servers and are unrelated to cooling efficiency.

When a server crashes with a Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) and is not responding, the most effective way to reboot it remotely must be chosen:

Crash cart (A): A crash cart is a physical device used for troubleshooting at the server location. Since the administrator wants a remote reboot, this is not suitable.

KVM (B): A KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) switch allows remote management of multiple servers but does not inherently provide reboot capabilities.

IRMI (C) - Intelligent Remote Management Interface: This is the best option. Many enterprise servers have Intelligent Platform Management Interface (IPMI) or Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) management tools that allow remote power control, including forced reboots.

shutdown -r (D): This command is used to restart a server via an operating system command-line interface. However, since the server is not responding, this command cannot be executed.

Since the server is unresponsive, the best method is to use the remote management interface (IRMI/IPMI/iLO) to force a reboot.

Scenario: Migrating a stand-alone application storing PII to the cloud.

Data to Encrypt: Data at rest (Option B) should be encrypted:

Data in transit (Option A) and backups (Option C) are also important but not the primary concern here.

Data archives (Option D) may or may not contain sensitive data.

The most likely cause of the issue is that the server has not been joined to the domain. A domain is a logical group of computers and devices that share a common directory service and security policy. A domain controller is a server that manages the domain and authenticates users and computers that want to access domain resources. To log on with domain credentials, a server must be joined to the domain and registered in the directory service. If a server has not been joined to the domain, it will not be recognized or authorized by the domain controller.

Scenario: Installing Windows on an 8TB drive, aiming for a single 8TB partition.

Solution: Use the GPT (GUID Partition Table) option (Option C):

GPT supports larger partitions (up to 18.4 million TB) compared to MBR (limited to 2TB).

VMFS, ZFS, and LVM are unrelated to the partitioning scheme in Windows.

SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocol that would most likely be implemented to encrypt data in transit for remote administration. SSH provides secure communication between two devices over an unsecured network by using public-key cryptography and symmetric encryption. SSH can be used to remotely execute commands, transfer files, or tunnel other protocols. Telnet, TFTP, and rlogin are protocols that do not encrypt data in transit and are considered insecure for remote administration. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2.0: Networking, Objective 2.4: Given a scenario involving network security/access methods, implement an appropriate solution.

RAID 5offers bothdisk redundancyandmaximum usable disk capacityby using block-level striping with parity. RAID 5 allows one drive to fail while still retaining data, and it uses only one disk’s worth of space for parity, maximizing the usable capacity.

RAID 5 (Answer C):Provides redundancy with only one disk's space used for parity, maximizing storage.

RAID 0 (Option A):Provides no redundancy; if one drive fails, all data is lost.

RAID 1 (Option B):Mirrors data, so redundancy is provided, but only half the capacity is usable.

RAID 10 (Option D):Combines RAID 1 and 0 for high performance and redundancy but requires half the disk space for mirroring.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered underSK0-005 Objective 1.5: Explain RAID levels and their benefits.

A heavily used database requires high I/O (Input/Output) performance for frequent transactions. Considering the storage options:

The drive is not capable of deduplication (A): Deduplication is useful for saving storage space, but it is not a primary concern for database performance.

The drive would have slow I/O performance (B): Traditional spinning disk SATA drives have significantly lower IOPS (Input/Output Operations Per Second) compared to SSDs or enterprise-level NVMe storage. A high-traffic database benefits from low-latency, high-throughput storage, which SATA HDDs do not provide.

The drive cannot use NTFS (C): SATA drives can use NTFS, so this is incorrect.

The drive is not compatible with the server OS (D): Most modern operating systems support SATA drives.

Because SATA spinning disks cannot handle high transaction loads efficiently, the administrator likely rejected the request due to poor I/O performance.

Robocopy (Robust File Copy) is a command-line tool in Windows that is designed for reliable copy or mirroring of files, and it can handle a broader range of file names and paths, including those that do not conform to traditional Windows file-naming standards. It's specifically designed to handle complex file copy demands and offers a wide range of options that can be tailored for different scenarios, which makes it suitable for the task mentioned. SCP (Secure Copy Protocol), Drag and Drop, and FTP (File Transfer Protocol) are all methods that can be used to copy files, but they might not handle non-standard Windows file names as well as Robocopy.

The first thing the administrator should check is whether the server is in the collection that was scheduled to receive the update through SCCM. A collection is a group of resources, such as computers or users, that can be managed as a single entity bySCCM. If the server is not in the collection, it will not receive the update. The other options are less likely to be the cause of the problem, as they would affect other aspects of the server’s functionality besides receiving updates. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.4: Given a scenario, apply patches/updates and validate their installation.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO) refers to the target time set for the recovery of IT and business activities after a disaster has struck, which includes restoring server, network, and data access. The policy requirement mentioned in the question aligns with the definition of RTO, as it specifies the maximum allowable downtime or the time within which functionality must be restored. Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) and Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) are metrics related to the reliability and repair times of systems but do not specifically pertain to disaster recovery time frames. Recovery Point Objective (RPO) describes the acceptable amount of data loss measured in time, not the restoration of operations.

Cloning the original VM is the most efficient way to provide a VM with high availability. Cloning is the process of creating an exact copy of a VM, including itsconfiguration, operating system, applications, and data. A cloned VM can be used as a backup or a replica of the original VM, and can be powered on and run independently. Cloning can be done quickly and easily using vSphere tools or other third-party software. By cloning the original VM and placing it on a different host server or availability zone, the technician can ensure that if the original VM fails, the cloned VM can take over its role and provide uninterrupted service to the users and applications.

An access control vestibule is a physical security concept that limits personnel access to a restricted area within a data center. It is a small room or hallway that has two doors: one that leads to the outside and one that leads to the restricted area. The doors are controlled by an electronic lock that requires authentication, such as a card reader, biometric scanner, or keypad. Only authorized personnel can enter the vestibule and access the restricted area. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.1: Given a scenario, apply physical security methods to a server.

 The technician should configure RAID 6 for this drive array to meet the server specifications. RAID 6 is a type of RAID level that provides fault tolerance and performance enhancement by using striping and dual parity. Striping means dividing data into blocks and distributing them across multiple disks to increase speed and capacity. Parity means calculating and storing extra information that can be used to reconstruct data in case of disk failure. RAID 6 uses two sets of parity information for each stripe, which are stored on different disks. This way, RAID 6 can handle up to two disk failures without losing any data or functionality. RAID 6 also allows for theleast amount of drive space lost to RAID overhead compared to other RAID levels that can handle two disk failures, such as RAID 1+0 or RAID 0+1.

Retention policiesdefine how long data should be kept before being archived or deleted and help in determining the frequency of backups to ensure data is available when needed. These policies are crucial for compliance, storage management, and disaster recovery planning.

Retention policies (Answer A):These directly address how long data is kept and how often it should be backed up.

Service-level agreement (Option B):SLAs define performance expectations and uptime, not specific data retention or backup schedules.

Life-cycle management (Option C):This refers to managing data from creation to disposal but doesn’t specifically address backup frequency or retention periods.

Mean time to recover (Option D):This metric measures how long it takes to restore services after a failure, not backup scheduling.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic relates toSK0-005 Objective 4.2: Explain the importance of data security concepts.

To enable a user to both read and write to a file, the administrator needs to provide "modify" rights. This permission level allows the user not only to open and view the file (read) but also to make changes and save those changes back to the file (write). "Read and execute" rights would allow the user to open and run the file but not make any changes. "List folder contents" rights would enable the user to view the files within a folder but not make changes to them. "Full control" rights would provide the user with complete control over the file, including the ability to change permissions and delete the file, which exceeds the principle of least-privilege access necessary for this task.

 A snapshot is a feature that can be used in hypervisors to restore to a previous version. A snapshot is a point-in-time copy of a virtual machine (VM) that captures the state and data of the VM at a specific moment. A snapshot can be created instantly and with minimal overhead, as it only stores the changes made to the VM after the snapshot was taken. A snapshot can be used to restore the VM to its previous state in case of data loss or corruption.

Log rotation is a process that periodically renames, compresses, and deletes old log files to free up disk space and keep log files manageable. Log rotation can be configured using tools such as logrotate or cron on Linux systems, or using Windows Task Scheduler or PowerShell scripts on Windows systems. Log rotation can also help with log analysis and troubleshooting by making it easier to find relevant information in smaller and more recent log files. References: https://www.mezmo.com/learn-log-management/what-is-log-rotation-how-does-it-workhttps://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/logman

 Explanation: To make a new drive available on a server, the administrator needs to partition the drive first. Partitioning is a process that divides the drive into one or more logical sections that can be formatted and assigned drive letters or mount points. Partitioning can be done using tools such as Disk Management on Windows or fdisk on Linux. Creating a new disk quota would not help, as disk quotas are used to limit the amount of disk space that users or groups can use on a partition. Configuring the drive as dynamic would not help either, as dynamic disks are used to create volumes that span multiple disks or use RAID features. Setting the compression would not help, as compression is used to reduce the size of files on a partition. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/school/using-windows-admin-tools-like-a-pro/lesson2/https://www.howtogeek.com/howto/17001/how-to-format-a-usb-drive-in-ubuntu-using-gparted/

The first step when addressing an urgent issue like a database disconnection should be to gather information to understand what actions caused the problem.Collecting all logs and reviewing the technician's actions (Answer D)will help identify what went wrong and guide appropriate remediation. Restoring access quickly is the priority, and without reviewing logs, it would be hard to identify the root cause or prevent further damage.

Reverting patches (Option A):Reverting patches might cause more issues if the problem isn't directly related to a recent update.

Reproducing the issue (Option B):Reproduction is useful in a controlled environment but not practical as an immediate first step in production.

Root cause analysis (Option C):This is necessary but should come after restoring access.

Performing a quick backup (Option E):While backups are crucial, this step might not help resolve the current access problem and can delay troubleshooting.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic relates toSK0-005 Objective 3.4: Explain troubleshooting theory and methodologies.

The administrator should use a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 for this setup. A subnet mask is a binary number that defines how many bits of an IP address areused for the network portion and how many bits are used for the host portion. The network portion identifies the specific network that the IP address belongs to, while the host portion identifies the specific device within that network. The subnet mask is usually written in dotted decimal notation, where each octet represents eight bits of the binary number. A 1 in the binary number means that the corresponding bit in the IP address is part of the network portion, while a 0 means that it is part of the host portion. For example, a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 means that the first 24 bits (three octets) of the IP address are used for the network portion and the last 8 bits (one octet) are used for the host portion. This subnet mask allows up to 254 hosts per network (2^8 - 2). In this case, the IP address of 10.20.10.15 and the default gateway of 10.20.10.254 belong to the same network of 10.20.10.0/24 (where /24 indicates the number of bits used for the network portion), which can be defined by using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0.

If the server administrator patches the server with the latest vendor-suggested software, configures DHCP, and verifies all network cables are properly connected in the IDF, but there is no network connectivity, then the most likely reason for the lack of connectivity is that the VLAN is improperly configured. A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is a logical grouping of network devices that share the same broadcast domain and can communicate with each other without routing. If the server is assigned to a different VLAN than the DHCP server or the default gateway, itwill not be able to obtain an IP address or reach other network devices. The DNS configuration is not relevant for network connectivity, as DNS only resolves names to IP addresses. The OS version is not likely to be incompatible with the network switch vendor, as most network switches use standard protocols and interfaces. The HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System) is not likely to prevent the connection, as HIDS only monitors and alerts on suspicious activities on the host. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/190014/virtualization-basics-understanding-techniques-and-fundamentals/ https://www.howtogeek.com/164981/how-to-use-nslookup-to-check-domain-name-information-in-microsoft-windows/https://www.howtogeek.com/202794/what-is-an-intrusion-detection-system-ids-and-how-does-it-work/

If a server has three hard drives configured in a RAID 5 array, it means that the data is striped across all three drives with parity information. RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without losing data, but not two or more. If there are multiple failed hard drives, the RAID 5 array will become corrupted and the OS will not load. The other options are not likely to cause the issue, as the server passes POST, the CPU and RAM are seated correctly, the BIOS settings are correct, and the OS loads from a bootable USB drive. RAID 5 does not require four drives, it can work with three or more.References:https://www.technewstoday.com/what-is-a-raid-5/

An IP KVM (keyboard, video, mouse) is a device that allows remote access and control of multiple servers over a network using a web browser or a clientsoftware. An IP KVM is a cost-effective option to administer and troubleshoot network problems locally on the servers, as it eliminates the need for physical presence or dedicated hardware for each server. A management port (A) is a network interface that is used for out-of-band management of network devices, such as routers or switches. A management port does not provide local access to servers. A crash cart (B) is a mobile unit that contains a monitor, keyboard, mouse, and other tools for troubleshooting servers in a data center. A crash cart requires physical access to each server and may not be cost-effective for many racks of servers. A KVM (D) is a device that allows switching between multiple servers using a single keyboard, video, and mouse. A KVM does not provide remote access over a network and requires physical connection to each server. References: https://www.enterprisestorageforum.com/management/best-data-storage-solutions-and-software- 2021/https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/business-insights-ideas/resources/cloud-storage-vs-on-premises-servers

Dynamic disk is a technology that allows an administrator to build a software RAID on a Windows server. Dynamic disk is a type of disk management that supports creating volumes that span multiple disks, stripe data across disks, mirror data between disks, or use parity for fault tolerance. Dynamic disk can be used to create RAID 0 (striping), RAID 1 (mirroring), RAID 5 (striping with parity), or spanned volumes on Windows servers. Logical volume management is a technology that allows creating and resizing logical volumes on Linux servers. GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a standard for defining the partition structure on a disk. UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) is a specification for the interface between the operating system and the firmware. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/school/using-windows-admin-tools-like-a-pro/lesson2/ https://www.howtogeek.com/howto/40702/how-to-manage-and-use-lvm-logical-volume-management-in-ubuntu/ https://www.howtogeek.com/193669/whats-the-difference-between-gpt-and-mbr-when-partitioning-a-drive/https://www.howtogeek.com/56958/htg-explains-how-uefi-will-replace-the-bios/

To disable root login over SSH, the server administrator needs to edit the SSH configuration file located at /etc/ssh/sshd_config. This file contains various settings for the SSH daemon that runs on the server and accepts incoming SSH connections. The administrator needs to find the line that says PermitRootLogin and change it to no or comment it out with a # symbol. Then, the administrator needs to restart the SSH service for the changes to take effect.References:https://www.howtogeek.com/828538/how-and-why-to-disable-root-login-over-ssh-on-linux/

The power supply and the hard drive are two components that can most likely be swapped out while the server is still running, if they support hot swapping or hot plugging. Hot swapping or hot plugging means that the device can be added or removed without shutting down the system. The operating system automatically recognizes the changes that have been made. This feature is useful for minimizing downtime and improving availability. The CPU, the GPU, the cache, and the RAM are not hot swappable and require the system to be powered off before replacing them. References: https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/what-is-hot-swapping/https://www.howtogeek.com/268249/what-is-hot-swapping-and-what-devices-support-it/

To comply with the user requirements, the best options are to install the OS on a RAID 1 array, configure RAID 5 for the application data, and use SSD hard drives for the data application array. Here is why:

RAID 1 is a mirroring technique that creates an exact copy of data on two disks. This provides redundancy and fault tolerance in case of hard drive failure. RAID 1 also improves read performance since either disk can be read at the same time. Therefore, installing the OS on a RAID 1 array meets the first requirement of separating the OS from the application data and protecting it from hard drive failure.

RAID 5 is a striping technique with parity that distributes data and parity blocks across three or more disks. This provides improved performance and storage efficiency compared to RAID 1, as well as fault tolerance in case of a single disk failure. Therefore, configuring RAID 5 for the application data meets the second and third requirements of providing high IOPS performance and data availability.

SSD hard drives are solid-state drives that use flash memory to store data. They have no moving parts and offer faster read and write speeds, lower latency, and lower power consumption than traditional HDDs. Therefore, using SSD hard drives for the data application array meets the second requirement of providing high IOPS performance.

A SAN (Storage Area Network) is a network of storage devices that can provide shared storage capacity to multiple servers. By connecting the server to a SAN, theadministrator can increase the storage capacity of the server without adding any internal disks or expansion cards. This solution can be implemented quickly and without any downtime. Verified References: [What is a SAN and how does it differ from NAS?]

The correct answer is D. per-core.

The per-core licensing model was created by software companies in response to the increasing density of processors. This model is used for software that runs on servers with multi-core processors, and the licensing fee is based on the number of cores.This way, the software vendors can charge more for software that runs on servers with more processing power1

A misconfigured hosts file can cause name resolution issues on a server. A hosts file is a text file that maps hostnames to IP addresses on a local system. It can be used to override DNS settings or provide custom name resolution for testing purposes. However, if the hosts file contains incorrect or outdated entries, it can prevent the system from resolving hostnames properly and cause connectivity problems. To fix this issue, the administrator should check and edit the hosts file accordingly.

The top portion of the dialog box lists the users and/or groups that have access to the file or folder.

The administrator needs to install SSL to make the website trusted. SSL stands for Secure Sockets Layer, which is an encryption-based Internet security protocol that ensures privacy, authentication, and data integrity in web communications. SSL enables HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure), which is a secure version of HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) that encrypts the data exchanged between a web browser and a web server. SSL also uses digital certificates to verify the identity of the web server and establish trust with the web browser. A web server that implements SSL has HTTPS in its URL instead of HTTP and displays a padlock icon or a green bar in the browser’s address bar.

The first thing that the technician should do before installing a new server OS on legacy server hardware is to consult the HCL (Hardware Compatibility List) to ensure everything is supported. The HCL is a list of hardware devices and components that are tested and certified to work with a specific OS or software product. The HCL helps to avoid compatibility issues and performance problems that may arise from using unsupported or incompatible hardware. Migrating the physical server to a virtual server may be a good option to improve scalability and flexibility, but it requires additional hardware and software resources and may not be feasible for legacy server hardware. Low-level formatting the hard drives may be a good practice to erase any old data and prepare the drives for a new OS installation, but it does not guarantee that the hardware will work with the new OS. Making sure the case and the fans are free from dust may be a good practice to ensure proper cooling and prevent overheating, but it does not guarantee that the hardware will work with the new OS. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/190014/virtualization-basics-understanding-techniques-and-fundamentals/ https://www.howtogeek.com/173353/how-to-low-level-format-or-write-zeros-to-a-hard-drive/https://www.howtogeek.com/303282/how-to-manage-your-pcs-fans-for-optimal-airflow-and-cooling/

The administrator should implement separate circuits first to address the issue of power issues due to the increased load. Separate circuits are electrical wiring systems that provide independent power sources for different devices or groups of devices. By using separate circuits, the administrator can avoid overloading a single circuit with too many servers and reduce the risk of power outages, surges, or fires. Separate circuits also provide redundancy and fault tolerance, as a failure in one circuit will not affect the other circuit.

Faulty memory and incorrectly seated memory are likely causes of the random BSOD conditions on the server. Memory is one of the most common hardware components that can cause BSOD (Blue Screen of Death) errors on Windows systems. BSOD errors occur when the system encounters a fatal error that prevents it from continuing to operate normally. Memory errors can be caused by faulty or incompatible memory modules that have physical defects or manufacturing flaws. Memory errors can also be caused by incorrectly seated memory modules that are not properly inserted or locked into the memory slots on the motherboard. This can result in loose or poor connections between the memory modules and the motherboard.

Insider threat is the most likely system vulnerability in a company that deploys antivirus, anti-malware, and firewalls that can be assumed to be functioning properly. An insider threat is a malicious or negligent act by an authorized user of a system or network that compromises the security or integrity of the system or network. An insider threat can include data theft, sabotage, espionage, fraud, or other types of attacks. Antivirus, anti-malware, and firewalls are security tools that can protect a system or network from external threats, such as viruses, worms, ransomware, or open ports. However, these tools cannot prevent an insider threat from exploiting their access privileges or credentials to harm the system or network.

The IP address/default gateway combination that the administrator should have used for the new server is IP address: 192.168.10.2/24 and Default gateway: 192.168.10.1. The IP address and the default gateway of a device must be in the same subnet to communicate with each other. A subnet is a logical division of a network that allows devices to share a common prefix of their IP addresses. Thesubnet mask determines how many bits of the IP address are used for the network prefix and how many bits are used for the host identifier. A /24 subnet mask means that the first 24 bits of the IP address are used for the network prefix and the last 8 bits are used for the host identifier. Therefore, any IP address that has the same first 24 bits as the default gateway belongs to the same subnet. In this case, the default gateway has an IP address of 192.168.10.1/24, which means that any IP address that starts with 192.168.10.x/24 belongs to the same subnet. The new server has an IP address of 192.168.1.1/24, which does not match the first 24 bits of the default gateway, so it belongs to a different subnet and cannot communicate with the default gateway. To fix this issue, the administrator should change the IP address of the new server to an unused IP address that starts with 192.168.10.x/24, such as 192.168.10.2/24.

The first thing that the technician should ensure to correct the database synchronization errors is that NTP is running on the database system. NTP (Network Time Protocol) is a protocol that synchronizes the clocks of network devices with a reference time source, such as an atomic clock or a GPS receiver. NTP ensures that all devices on a network have accurate and consistent time settings, which can affect various functions and applications. Database synchronization is a process of maintaining data consistency and integrity across multiple database servers or instances. Database synchronization can depend on accurate time settings, as time stamps are often used to determine which data is newer or older, and which data should be updated or overwritten. If NTP is not running on the database system, it may cause time drift or discrepancy between different database servers or instances, which can result in synchronization errors or data conflicts.

RAID 6 is a type of RAID level that uses two parity blocks to provide fault tolerance and redundancy for data storage. RAID 6 can withstand the failure of up to two disks in the array without losing any data. RAID 6 requires a minimum of four disks to operate, and it distributes the data and parity blocks across all the disks in the array. RAID 6 has a high write penalty, which means that it takes more time and resources to write data to the disks than to read data from them. However, RAID 6 offers a highlevel of data protection and reliability, which makes it suitable for applications that require high availability and durability1.

RAID 1 provides redundancy and fault tolerance by mirroring the data from one disk to another disk. RAID 1 offers high read performance and data security, but it has low capacity and write performance. RAID 1 requires a minimum of two disks to operate, and it can only tolerate the failure of one disk in the array. If more than one disk fails, all the data in the array is lost2.

RAID 5 provides redundancy and fault tolerance by using one parity block to store information that can be used to reconstruct the data in case of a disk failure. RAID 5 requires a minimum of three disks to operate, and it distributes the data and parity blocks across all the disks in the array. RAID 5 offers a balance between performance, capacity, and data protection, but it can only tolerate the failure of one disk in the array. If more than one disk fails, all the data in the array is lost2.

Therefore, among these options, RAID 6 is the best solution for creating a data volume out of four disks with the most redundancy.

The technician should use port 22 to configure a server that requires secure remote access. Port 22 is the default port for Secure Shell (SSH), which is a protocol that allows secure remote login and command execution over a network connection using a command-line interface (CLI). SSH encrypts both the authentication and data transmission between the client and the server, preventing eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing. SSH can be used to perform various tasks on a server remotely, such as configuration, administration, maintenance, troubleshooting, etc.

QSFP+ is a type of connector that should be used to connect a server to a switch that uses 40G network connectivity. QSFP+ (Quad Small Form-factor Pluggable Plus) is a compact, hot-pluggable transceiver module that supports data rates up to 40 Gbps. QSFP+ modules can be used for various network protocols and media types, such as Ethernet, Fibre Channel, InfiniBand, or optical fiber. QSFP+ modules have a 38-pin edge connector and can be inserted into a QSFP+ port on a switch or a server. SFP+ (Small Form-factor Pluggable Plus) is a type of connector that supports data rates up to 10 Gbps, but not 40 Gbps. SFP+ modules have a 20-pin edge connector and can be inserted into an SFP+ port on a switch or a server. GBIC (Gigabit Interface Converter) is an older type of connector that supports data rates up to 1 Gbps, but not 40 Gbps. GBIC modules have an SC duplex connector and can be inserted into a GBIC port on a switch or a server. SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable) is another older type of connector that supports data rates up to 1 Gbps or 4 Gbps, but not 40 Gbps. SFP modules have an LC duplex connector and can be inserted into an SFP port on a switch or a server. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/190014/virtualization-basics-understanding-techniques-and-fundamentals/ https://www.howtogeek.com/428483/what-is-end-to-end-encryption-and-why-does-it-matter/ https://www.howtogeek.com/443611/how-to-encrypt-your-macs-system-drive-removable-devices-and-individual-files/

The best solutions to resolve the concern of transmissions from the building being detected from outside are signal blocking and reflective glass. Signal blocking is a method of preventing or interfering with electromagnetic signals from escaping or entering a certain area. Signal blocking can be achieved by using various materials or devices that create physical barriers or generate noise or jamming signals. Signal blocking can protect data transmissions from being intercepted or eavesdropped by unauthorized parties. Reflective glass is a type of glass that has a coating or film that reflects light and heat. Reflective glass can reduce glare and solar radiation, as well as prevent visual observation from outside. Reflective glass can enhance privacy and security for datacenter operations.

The /etc/fstab file contains the information about the file systems that are mounted automatically at boot time or on demand. The entry nfsserver:/home /home nfs defaults 0 0 indicates that the /home directory on the local server is mounted from the /home directory on a remote server called nfsserver using the NFS protocol. However, the df -h /home command shows that the /home directory is actually mounted from a local partition /dev/sda2, which may not contain the user’s files. This means that the NFS mount failed or was overridden by another mount. To resolve the issue, the technician should attempt to unmount the local partition using umount nfsserver:/home, which will detach the /home directory from /dev/sda2. Then, the technician should try to mount the NFS share again using mount /home, which will attach the /home directory to nfsserver:/home according to the /etc/fstab entry12. Creating a new directory (A) or removing an existing one © would not help, as they would not affect the mount point. Mounting /home (D) without unmounting it first would not work, asit would result in an error that the mount point is busy3. References: 1 https://askubuntu.com/questions/374870/home-directory-not-being-created 2 https://www.techrepublic.com/article/how-to-properly-automount-a-drive-in-ubuntu-linux/ 3 https://serverfault.com/questions/587855/cannot-find-home-directory-on-linux-server

An IDRAC (Integrated Dell Remote Access Controller) is a tool that can be used to command a remote shutdown of a physical Linux server. An IDRAC is a hardware device that provides out-of-band management for Dell servers. It allows the technician to access the server’s console, power cycle, reboot, or shut down the server remotely using a web interface or a command-line interface. An IDRAC does not depend on the operating system or network connectivity of the server. A virtual serial console is a tool that can be used to access a remote virtual machine’s console using a serial port connection. A KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) switch is a device that allows the technician to switch between different computer sources using the same keyboard, monitor, and mouse. A crash cart is a mobile unit that contains a keyboard, monitor, mouse, and other tools that can be connected to a physical server for troubleshooting purposes. References: https://www.dell.com/support/kbdoc/en-us/000131486/understanding-the-idrac https://www.howtogeek.com/799968/what-is-a-kvm-switch/https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1032/business-impact-analysis-bia

A synthetic full backup is a backup method that describes copying only changed files each time it runs and using only a single file during a restore. A synthetic full backup is a backup approach that involves creating a new full backup by using the previous full backup and related incremental backups. This means that a backup solution does not have to transfer the full amount of data from the source machine and can synthetize the latest incremental backups with the last full backup to create a new full backup. This reduces the backup window and network bandwidth consumption. During a restore, only the latest synthetic full backup file is needed to recover the data. Open file backup is a backup method that allows backing up files that are in use or locked by applications. Full incremental backup is a backup method that involves performing a full backup first and then backing up only the changed files since the last backup. Full differential backup is a backup method that involves performing a full backup first and then backing up only the changed files since the last full backup. References: https://www.nakivo.com/blog/what-is-synthetic-backup/https://www.howtogeek.com/192115/what-you-need-to-know-about-creating-system-image-backups/

These are two measures that should be taken when a data breach occurs. A data breach is an unauthorized or illegal access to confidential or sensitive data by an internal or external actor. A data breach can result in financial losses, reputational damage, legal liabilities, and regulatory penalties for the affected organization. Disclosing the incident is a measure that involves informing the relevant stakeholders, such as customers, employees, partners, regulators, and law enforcement, about the nature, scope, and impact of the data breach. Disclosing the incident can help to mitigate the negative consequences of the data breach, comply with legal obligations, and restore trust and confidence. Identifying the exploited vulnerability is a measure that involves investigating and analyzing the root cause and source of the data breach. Identifying the exploited vulnerability can help to prevent further data loss, remediate the security gaps, and improve the security posture of the organization. Restoring the data from backup is a measure thatinvolves recovering the lost or corrupted data from a secondary storage device or location. However, this does not address the underlying issue of how the data breach occurred or prevent future breaches. Disabling unnecessary ports is a measure that involves closing or blocking network communication endpoints that are not required for legitimate purposes. However, this does not address how the data breach occurred or what vulnerability was exploited. Running an antivirus scan is a measure that involves detecting and removing malicious software from a system or network. However, this does not address how the data breach occurred or what vulnerability was exploited. Moving the data to a different location is a measure that involves transferring the data to another storage device or location that may be more secure or less accessible. However, this does not address how the data breach occurred or what vulnerability was exploited. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/428483/what-is-end-to-end-encryption-and-why-does-it-matter/ https://www.howtogeek.com/202794/what-is-the-difference-between-127.0.0.1-and-0.0.0.0/https://www.howtogeek.com/443611/how-to-encrypt-your-macs-system-drive-removable-devices-and-individual-files/

The most appropriate native protocol to use for connecting a Linux server to a share on a NAS is NFS. NFS (Network File System) is a protocol that allows file sharing and remote access over a network. NFS is designed for Unix-like operating systems, suchas Linux, and supports features such as symbolic links, hard links, file locking, and file permissions. NFS uses mount points to attach remote file systems to local file systems, making them appear as if they are part of the local file system. NFS can provide fast and reliable access to files stored on a NAS (Network Attached Storage), which is a device that provides centralized storage for network devices.

 The type of data replication that is required for a hot-site disaster recovery model is constant. A hot site is a type of disaster recovery site that has fully operational IT infrastructure and equipment that can take over the primary site’s functions immediately in case of a disaster or disruption. A hot site requires constant data replication between the primary site and the hot site to ensure that the data is up-to-date and consistent. Constant data replication means that any changes made to the data at the primary site are immediately copied to the hot site without any delay or lag.

The technician should boot from the media to install the firmware on the server. Firmware is a type of software that controls the low-level functions of hardware devices, such as BIOS (Basic Input/Output System), RAID controllers, network cards, etc. Firmware updates are often provided by hardware manufacturers to fix bugs, improve performance, or add new features to their devices. To install firmware updates on a server, the technician needs to boot from a media device (such as a CD-ROM, DVD-ROM, USB flash drive, etc.) that contains the firmware files and installationprogram. The technician cannot install firmware updates from within the operating system because firmware updates often require restarting or resetting the hardware devices.

The write cache is a feature of some RAID controllers that allows them to temporarily store data in a fast memory buffer before writing it to the disk drives. This improves the performance and efficiency of write operations, especially for random and small writes. However, if the battery on the controller goes bad, the controller may disable the write cache to prevent data loss in case of a power failure. This can degrade the disk drive performance significantly, as every write operation will have to wait for the disk drives to complete. References: https://www.dell.com/support/kbdoc/en-us/000131486/understanding-raid-controller-battery-learn-cyclehttps://www.techrepublic.com/article/understanding-raid-controller-write-cache/

Bollards are an example of a method that is used to prevent motor vehicles from getting too close to building entrances and exits. Bollards are short, sturdy posts that are installed on sidewalks, parking lots, or roads to create physical barriers and control traffic flow. Bollards can be used to protect pedestrians, buildings, or other structures from vehicle collisions or attacks. Bollards can be made of various materials, such as metal, concrete, or plastic, and can be fixed, removable, or retractable.

A warm site is a type of disaster recovery site that has a target storage array that receives replication traffic and servers that are only powered on in the event of a disaster. A warm site is a compromise between a hot site and a cold site. A warm site has some equipment and data ready, but requires some configuration and restoration before resuming operations. A warm site is usually located in a different geographic area than the primary site and has redundant power, cooling, network, and security systems. A warm site is suitable for organizations that can tolerate some downtime and data loss in case of a disaster. A cloud site is a type of disaster recovery site that uses cloud-based resources and platforms to store backups and restore data and applications after a disaster. A cold site is a type of disaster recovery site that has only basic infrastructure and space available, but requires significant setup and installation before resuming operations. A hot site is a type of disaster recovery site that has all the equipment and data ready to resume operations as soon as possible after a disaster. References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/11172/hot-site https://www.techopedia.com/definition/11173/warm-site https://www.techopedia.com/definition/11174/cold-sitehttps://www.techopedia.com/definition/29836/cloud-recovery

The method that would help the administrator accomplish the task of creating new VMs in the shortest amount of time and meet the system requirements is template. A template is a preconfigured virtual machine image that contains an operating system, applications, settings, and other components. A template can be used to create multiple identical or customized VMs quickly and easily, without having to install and configure each VM from scratch. A template can save time and ensure consistency across VMs.

The reason why the Linux server is not communicating on a network is that it is configured to use DHCP on a network that does not have a DHCP server. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a protocol that allows a client device to obtain an IP address and other network configuration parameters from a DHCP server automatically. However, if there is no DHCP server on the network, the client device will not be able to obtain a valid IP address and will assign itself a link-local address instead. A link-local address is an IP address that is only valid within a local network segment and cannot be used for communication outside of it. A link-local address has a prefix of 169.254/16 in IPv4 or fe80::/10 in IPv6. In this case, the Linux server has assigned itself a link-local address of 127.0.0.1, which is also known as the loopback address. The loopback address is used for testing and troubleshooting purposes and refers to the device itself. It cannot be used for communication with other devices on the network.

The component that allows for a connection of devices to both sides inside of a blade enclosure is midplane. A midplane is a board or panel that connects two sets of connectors or devices in parallel with each other. A midplane is typically used in blade enclosures or chassis to provide power and data connections between blade servers on one side and power supplies, cooling fans, switches, or management modules on the other side. A midplane can also act as a backplane by providing bus signals or communication channels between devices.

The best way to protect an organization against social engineering is to provide recurring training and support. Social engineering is a type of attack that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into divulging confidential information or performing malicious actions. Social engineering can take various forms, such as phishing emails, phone calls, impersonation, baiting, or quid pro quo. The best defense against social engineering is to educate and empower the employees to recognize and avoid common social engineering techniques and report any suspicious activities or incidents. Recurring training and support can help raise awareness and reinforce best practices among the employees.

The administrator should rebuild the volume to restore it after replacing the failed hard drive. A volume is a logical unit of storage that can span across multiple physical disks. A volume can be configured with different levels of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) to provide fault tolerance and performance enhancement. When a hard drive in a RAID volume fails, the data on that drive can be reconstructed from the remaining drives using parity or mirroring techniques. However, this process requires a new hard drive to replace the failed one and a rebuild operation to copy the data from the existing drives to the new one. Rebuilding a volume can take a long time depending on the size and speed of the drives and the RAID level.

The most efficient subnet address for a network that will have no more than 30 available IP addresses is 255.255.255.224. This subnet mask corresponds to a /27 prefix length, which means that 27 bits are used for the network portion and 5 bits are used for the host portion of an IP address. With 5 bits for hosts, there are 2^5 - 2 = 30 possible host addresses per subnet, which meets the requirement. The other options are either too large or too small for the network size.Reference:https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/subnet-mask

Shell is the most appropriate scripting language to use for a logon script for a Linux box. Shell is a generic term for a command-line interpreter that allows users to interact with the operating system by typing commands and executing scripts. Shell scripts are files that contain a series of commands and instructions that can be executed by a shell. Shell scripts are commonly used for automating tasks, such as logon scripts that run when a user logs on to a system. There are different types of shells available for Linux systems, such as Bash, Ksh, Zsh, etc., but they all share a similar syntax and functionality.

LVM (Logical Volume Manager) is a tool that allows the technician to increase a partition’s size in the future without reformatting it on a Linux server. LVM creates logical volumes that can span across multiple physical disks or partitions and can be resized dynamically without losing data. LVM also provides other features such as snapshots, encryption, and RAID. DiskPart, fdisk, and Format are tools that can be used to partition and format disks, but they do not allow increasing a partition’s size without reformatting it. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/howto/40702/how-to-manage-and-use-lvm-logical-volume-management-in-ubuntu/ https://www.howtogeek.com/school/using-windows-admin-tools-like-a-pro/lesson2/https://www.howtogeek.com/howto/17001/how-to-format-a-usb-drive-in-ubuntu-using-gparted/

The best way to ensure that there is a more direct relationship between the number of users using the server and the amount of space that might be used is to implement disk quotas. Disk quotas are a feature that allows a server administrator to limit the amount of disk space that each user or group can use on a file server. Disk quotas can help manage storage utilization, prevent disk space exhaustion, and enforce fair usage policies. Disk quotas can also provide reports and alerts on disk space usage and quota status.

A core installation is a type of installation method that is best suited to meet the company policy that states no one is to log in directly to the server. A core installation is a minimal installation option that is available when deploying some editions of Windows Server. A core installation includes most but not all server roles and features, but does not include a graphical user interface (GUI). A core installation can only be managed remotely using command-line tools such as PowerShell or Windows Admin Center, or using graphical tools such as Server Manager or Remote Desktop from another computer. This reduces the attack surface, resource consumption, and maintenance requirements of the server. A GUI installation is a type of installation method that includes a graphical user interface (GUI) and allows local or remote management using graphical tools or command-line tools. A virtualized installation is a type of installation method that involves creating and running one or more virtual machines on a physical host using a hypervisor such as Hyper-V or VMware. A clone installation is a type of installation method that involves creating an exact copy of an existing server’s configuration and data on another server using tools such as Sysprep or Clonezilla. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/67469/the-beginners-guide-to-shell-scripting-the-basics/ https://www.howtogeek.com/443611/how-to-encrypt-your-macs-system-drive-removable-devices-and-individual-files/ https://www.howtogeek.com/199068/how-to-upgrade-your-existing-hard-drive-in-under-an-hour/

Port 21 is used for FTP (File Transfer Protocol), which is a protocol that transfers files between servers and clients in cleartext, meaning that anyone can intercept and read the data. To stop this communication, port 21 should be closed on the web server and replaced with a secure protocol, such as SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) or FTPS (File Transfer Protocol Secure), which use encryption to protect the data. Verified References: [FTP vs SFTP vs FTPS]

RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is a metric that measures how much downtime an organization can tolerate during an unplanned outage before it affects its business continuity and reputation. RTO is usually expressed in hours or minutes and is determined by the criticality of the business processes and the impact of the outage on the revenue, customers, and stakeholders. RTO helps to define the recovery strategy and the resources needed to restore the normal operations as quickly as possible. Verified References: [RTO vs RPO]

Round robin is a load balancing technique that distributes requests among multiple web nodes in a circular order. It ensures that each web node receives an equal amount of requests and improves the availability and performance of the web application. Verified References: [Round robin], [Load balancing]