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SIE Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following products is the most appropriate class of investments for a customer looking for income and capital gains?

Options:

A.

A growth stock

B.

A money market account

C.

A blue-chip stock mutual fund

D.

Treasury Separate Trading of Registered Interest and Principal of Securities (STRIPS)

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Questions 5

Which of the following responses best describes how member firms are required to retain electronic correspondence and internal communications of associated persons?

Options:

A.

In hard copy

B.

On the firm's server

C.

In the firm's cloud storage

D.

In a non-rewriteable format

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Questions 6

Class A and Class C shares of a mutual fund differ in which of the following ways?

Options:

A.

The expense ratio

B.

The net asset value (NAV)

C.

The underlying investments

D.

When the customer is permitted to purchase

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Questions 7

A summary prospectus for a mutual fund must contain which of the following information?

Options:

A.

Projected return

B.

Investment objectives

C.

Fund's portfolio holdings

D.

Control persons and principal owners of the fund

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Questions 8

Which of the following is the primary risk of using asset allocation models without periodic rebalancing?

Options:

A.

Inflation

B.

Marketability

C.

Overweighting

D.

Interest rate risk

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Questions 9

Which of the following account registration types is subject to probate upon the death of the account owner?

Options:

A.

Individual

B.

Irrevocable trust

C.

Transfer-on-death (TOD)

D.

Joint tenants with right of survivorship (JTWROS)

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Questions 10

A customer purchases 100 shares of stock on Thursday, August 2. This transaction must settle regular way no later than:

Options:

A.

Friday, August 3

B.

Monday, August 6

C.

Tuesday, August 7

D.

Wednesday, August 8

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Questions 11

At a prospecting event, a registered representative (RR) provides cards for attendees to write down their contact information if they want to have a follow-up meeting with her. Which of the following actions should the RR take in this situation to comply with telemarketing rules?

Options:

A.

Obtain the broker-dealer's approval before making a call

B.

Limit contact with prospects to between 9 a.m. and 9 p.m.

C.

Contact the prospects at will since they provided express written consent

D.

Prior to contacting the prospects, check all of the names on the cards to make sure they are not on the National Do Not Call Registry

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Questions 12

A customer receives a confirmation that discloses the firm has acted in a principal capacity. Which of the following statements is the best explanation for this disclosure?

Options:

A.

The firm is selling to the customer from its inventory.

B.

The firm is acting as an intermediary between the customer and an unrelated firm.

C.

The firm is acting as an intermediary between the customer and another customer.

D.

The firm matched the customer's purchase with a sell order listed on an electronic communication network (ECN).

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Questions 13

A broker-dealer (BD) creates a marketing postcard that includes a statement regarding FINRA's endorsement of the BD. Which of the following responses is true?

Options:

A.

The statement regarding FINRA's endorsement is not permissible.

B.

The statement is permissible if a principal of the BD approves it in writing prior to use.

C.

The statement is permissible if the statement is approved in writing by FINRA prior to use.

D.

The statement is permissible if the postcard does not discuss specific investment opportunities.

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Questions 14

Which of the following statements describes a characteristic of exchange-traded funds (ETFs)?

Options:

A.

ETFs are offered with front-end or back-end loads.

B.

ETFs are not permitted to be purchased on margin.

C.

ETFs are purchased and sold daily at net asset value (NAV).

D.

ETF expense ratios are generally lower than those of mutual funds.

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Questions 15

Which of the following characteristics is true of open-end mutual fund shares?

Options:

A.

They terminate and dissolve on an established date.

B.

Their price is calculated intra-day based on the changing market value of the fund.

C.

They are purchased by investors in the secondary market.

D.

They are purchased by investors directly from the fund or through a broker-dealer offering the fund.

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Questions 16

A currency devaluation impacts a country's economic activity in which of the following ways?

Options:

A.

Decreases inflation

B.

Decreases gross domestic product (GDP)

C.

Increases imports from merchandise trade countries

D.

Makes exports cost less in merchandise trade countries

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Questions 17

A bond with a par value of $1,000 that is backed by the taxing power of a local government is known as:

Options:

A.

A revenue bond

B.

A Treasury bond

C.

A corporate bond

D.

A general obligation (GO) bond

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Questions 18

Which of the following strategies is an investor most likely to employ using options contracts?

Options:

A.

Buying put options to set a definitive floor for potential losses

B.

Buying put options when the market shows upward momentum

C.

Selling call options to set a definitive ceiling for potential losses

D.

Buying call options when the market shows downward momentum

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Questions 19

Which of the following statements concerning nonqualified deferred compensation plans is true?

Options:

A.

They are governed by ERISA rules.

B.

Such plans must be reviewed with the IRS.

C.

The deferred compensation must be held in escrow at a bank.

D.

A failure of the business could lead to nonpayment of the deferred compensation.

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Questions 20

Which of the following strategies is best for mitigating the risk of a concentrated position?

Options:

A.

Diversification

B.

Use of leverage

C.

Dollar-cost averaging

D.

Dividend reinvestment

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Questions 21

Which of the following activities is a responsibility of a mutual fund transfer agent?

Options:

A.

Underwriting new shares of securities

B.

Distributing the fund's prospectus to investors

C.

Maintaining custody of the fund's securities

D.

Maintaining records of shareholder purchases and redemptions

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Questions 22

Before an affiliate of an issuer is permitted to sell 10,000 shares of restricted securities, which of the following conditions must be met?

Options:

A.

The affiliate must have a holding period of six months.

B.

The company must be traded on a listed stock exchange.

C.

The issuer must notify FINRA of the proposed sale by submitting a Form 144.

D.

The shares to be sold must be less than 10% of the average daily trading volume (ADTV) of the security.

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Questions 23

After a customer purchases bonds at a yield of 5.00%, the current yield at market price increases to 5.25%. Which of the following statements is true regarding the value of the bonds?

Options:

A.

The value of the bonds has increased.

B.

The value of the bonds has decreased.

C.

The face value of the bonds has decreased.

D.

There is no change in the value of the bonds.

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Questions 24

For up to how many business days is a firm initially permitted to place a temporary hold on disbursements for a specified adult account in which the firm reasonably believes financial exploitation has occurred?

Options:

A.

3 business days

B.

5 business days

C.

10 business days

D.

15 business days

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Questions 25

Offering 403(b) tax-sheltered annuity accounts to which of the following groups is permissible?

Options:

A.

Volunteer workers

B.

Small business owners

C.

Active duty military personnel

D.

Employees of a nonprofit hospital

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Questions 26

A retail investor owns shares of Mutual Fund ABC that paid a $0.25 dividend on September 1 and closed at $10.00. What is the opening price once this fund trades on the ex-dividend date?

Options:

A.

$9.25

B.

$9.75

C.

$10.00

D.

$10.25

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Questions 27

Under which of the following circumstances, if any, is a registered representative (RR) permitted to share in the profits and losses of security interests that the RR has purchased jointly with a customer?

Options:

A.

Only when the customer is an accredited investor

B.

Only if the RR’s firm is also a participant in the sharing arrangement

C.

When the profits and losses are proportionate to the amount contributed by the RR

D.

Under no circumstances

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Questions 28

Which of the following must a registered representative disclose as an outside business activity (OBA) on his Form U4?

Options:

A.

Volunteer work for a local charity

B.

Trustee on a grandparent's estate account

C.

Board member for a publicly traded company

D.

Board member serving without compensation for a not-for-profit entity

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Questions 29

Which of the following activities engaged in by a registered person is considered a private securities transaction?

Options:

A.

Soliciting donations to a charity

B.

Helping a friend raise money for a startup company they founded

C.

Working for an insurance company selling term life insurance policies

D.

Investing personal money in shares of a listed security in a brokerage account

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Questions 30

The Options Clearing Corporation (OCC) is a registered clearing agency for which of the following products?

Options:

A.

Listed stocks

B.

Over-the-counter bonds

C.

Exchange-traded funds (ETFs)

D.

Long-term Equity Anticipation Securities (LEAPS)

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Questions 31

Which of the following statements is true of an index exchange-traded fund (ETF)?

Options:

A.

It has a high portfolio turnover ratio.

B.

It is priced once daily, generally at the market close.

C.

It offers an opportunity to outperform the index it tracks.

D.

Passive ETFs will typically have lower fees than those associated with actively managed ETFs.

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Questions 32

A registered representative who is terminated from a broker-dealer must notify FINRA of a residential address change for what period of time after termination?

Options:

A.

One year

B.

Two years

C.

Three years

D.

Six years

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Questions 33

Which of the following statements is true with regard to SIPC and FDIC?

Options:

A.

SIPC coverage is only for securities, and FDIC coverage is only for cash.

B.

SIPC protects brokerage accounts, and FDIC protects bank deposits.

C.

Money market mutual funds are covered by the FDIC and are not covered by SIPC.

D.

Securities held at broker-dealers are covered by the FDIC and are not covered by SIPC.

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Questions 34

Which of the following rates is subject to the most frequent changes?

Options:

A.

Prime

B.

Call loan

C.

Discount

D.

Federal funds

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Questions 35

A customer purchases 100 shares of stock. The customer fears a decline in the share price and would like to protect his investment and minimize loss. Which of the following strategies should the customer employ to lock in his profit?

Options:

A.

Sell a put

B.

Sell a call

C.

Purchase a put

D.

Purchase a call

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Questions 36

Which of the following security types is frequently offered to the public as part of a package or unit that also includes a fixed income obligation?

Options:

A.

Options

B.

Warrants

C.

Common stock

D.

Preferred stock

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Questions 37

Under SEC Regulation A, which of the following market participants, if deemed to be a bad actor, will disqualify the offering from reliance on this registration exemption?

Options:

A.

Custodian

B.

Underwriter

C.

Transfer agent

D.

Clearing corporation

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Questions 38

Which of the following statements characterizes the typical relationship between the market value of a municipal bond portfolio and interest rates?

Options:

A.

As interest rates increase, the market value goes up.

B.

As interest rates decrease, the market value goes up.

C.

As the market value goes down, interest rates decrease.

D.

As the market value goes up, interest rates stay constant.

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Questions 39

An associated person at a member firm receives a complaint from a customer involving allegations of forgery. Once the complaint is received, which of the following actions is required?

Options:

A.

The member firm must report the event promptly to FINRA.

B.

The member firm is not required to report the event to FINRA but must maintain a file of the complaint for four years.

C.

The member firm must complete arbitration to resolve the complaint with the customer before filing a report with FINRA.

D.

The member firm must have a principal review the complaint and determine if the forgery occurred before filing a report with FINRA.

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Questions 40

SIPC provides investor protection for its members' customers in which of the following situations?

Options:

A.

Failure of a brokerage firm in the event of insolvency

B.

Failure of a brokerage firm to meet customers' investment expectations

C.

Losses greater than 10% due to systemic market decline

D.

Losses incurred on futures contracts due to fraud or negligence

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Questions 41

A municipal securities dealer makes a political contribution of $990 to a local mayoral candidate. At the end of the quarter, to whom, if anyone, must the dealer report the contribution?

Options:

A.

SEC

B.

MSRB

C.

FINRA

D.

No disclosure required as the amount is below the reporting threshold

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Questions 42

The provision that allows a bond issuer to purchase bonds from customers prior to the maturity date on the bond is known as a:

Options:

A.

Put

B.

Call

C.

Conversion

D.

Defeasement

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Questions 43

The cash value of a variable life insurance policy is affected by which of the following factors?

Options:

A.

Changes in the beneficiary

B.

Changes in the death benefit

C.

Fluctuating market conditions

D.

Contingent deferred sales charges

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Questions 44

A customer wants to open an account to trade covered calls and puts. Which of the followingcommunications must be provided to the customer prior to approving the account for trading?

Options:

A.

Prospectus

B.

MSRB Investor Brochure

C.

Margin disclosure statement

D.

Options disclosure document (ODD)

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Questions 45

A registered representative (RR) intends to enter into an arrangement for compensation with an unaffiliated entity to participate in the sale of promissory notes to the general public. Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

This is a permissible arrangement, and the RR is only required to notify his firm.

B.

The RR must receive written approval from his firm prior to entering into this arrangement.

C.

The RR is required to notify his firm regarding this arrangement if compensation received is directly related to transactions.

D.

The RR is not required to provide prior notice to his firm as promissory notes are not considered securities.

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Questions 46

Which of the following characteristics best describes a benefit of a variable annuity subaccount?

Options:

A.

The account is managed by a third-party custodian and is, therefore, subject to lower management fees than those charged by the insurance company.

B.

The account is held at a broker-dealer that is separate from the insurance company, thereby allowing tax-deferred investments in all types of securities products.

C.

The account is held separately from the insurance company's general account and, therefore, is protected from the claims of general creditors of the insurance company.

D.

The account represents the indebtedness of the insurance company that is subordinated to the claims of general creditors and, therefore, offers investors a higher rate of return.

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Questions 47

Which of the following is a reportable obligation with respect to an individual's Form U4?

Options:

A.

A speeding ticket

B.

A change of residential address

C.

A change of business telephone number

D.

A gambling-related misdemeanor charge

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Questions 48

Which of the following listed securities carries voting rights?

Options:

A.

Common stock

B.

Preferred stock

C.

Corporate bond

D.

Convertible bond

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Questions 49

The formation of an asset-backed security or debt obligation that represents a claim on the cash flows from mortgage loans is known as:

Options:

A.

Securitization

B.

Hypothecation

C.

Loan processing

D.

Claim processing

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Exam Code: SIE
Exam Name: Securities Industry Essentials Exam (SIE)
Last Update: Apr 19, 2025
Questions: 164
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