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PMI-001 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

PMBOI Guide is a standard that describes:

Options:

A.

product-oriented processes.

B.

project management processes.

C.

product-oriented and project management processes.

D.

program management and project management processes.

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Questions 5

Which of the following forecasting methods uses historical data as the basis for estimating future outcomes?

Options:

A.

Time series

B.

Judgmental

C.

Econometric

D.

Simulation

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Questions 6

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Resource availability

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Team performance assessment

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Questions 7

A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?

Options:

A.

Plan contracting

B.

Requesting seller responses

C.

Selecting seller's

D.

Planning purchase and acquisition

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Questions 8

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

Options:

A.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B.

Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)

C.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

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Questions 9

The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?

Options:

A.

Transfer

B.

Share

C.

Avoid

D.

Accept

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Questions 10

Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Contract plan

B.

Procurement plan

C.

Closure process

D.

Procurement audits

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Questions 11

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Closing

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

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Questions 12

Which is an enterprise environmental factor?

Options:

A.

Marketplace conditions

B.

Policies and procedures

C.

Project files from previous projects

D.

Lessons learned from previous projects

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Questions 13

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

Options:

A.

Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B.

The Standard for Program Management

C.

Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)

D.

Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)

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Questions 14

What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

B.

Ground rules for interaction

C.

Enhanced resource availability

D.

Functional managers becoming more involved

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Questions 15

A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:

Options:

A.

facilitated workshops.

B.

observations.

C.

questionnaires and surveys.

D.

group creativity techniques.

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Questions 16

Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?

Options:

A.

Crashing

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Leads and lags adjustment

D.

Parallel task development

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Questions 17

An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:

Options:

A.

Nominal group technique.

B.

Majority.

C.

Affinity diagram.

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

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Questions 18

In a project, total float measures the:

Options:

A.

Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.

B.

Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.

C.

Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.

D.

Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.

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Questions 19

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

Options:

A.

A-B-C-F-G-I

B.

A-B-C-F-H-I

C.

A-D-E-F-G-I

D.

A-D-E-F-H-I

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Questions 20

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The shortest non-critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

16

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Questions 21

What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions?

Options:

A.

Project boundaries

B.

Project constraints

C.

Project assumptions

D.

Project objectives

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Questions 22

Which type of analysis systemically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitative information to determine which interests should be taken into account throughout the project?

Options:

A.

Product

B.

Cost-benefit

C.

Stakeholder

D.

Research

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Questions 23

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

Options:

A.

training, testing, and warranty work.

B.

equipment, rework, and scrap.

C.

training, document processes, and inspections.

D.

inspections, rework, and warranty work.

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Questions 24

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Managing stakeholder expectations

D.

Performance reports

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Questions 25

Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?

Options:

A.

Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Identify Risks

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Questions 26

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

Options:

A.

Strategic plan

B.

Project charter

C.

Project management plan

D.

Service level agreement

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Questions 27

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

Options:

A.

Keep satisfied

B.

Keep informed

C.

Manage closely

D.

Monitor

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Questions 28

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

Options:

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

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Questions 29

Which is an output from Distribute Information?

Options:

A.

Earned value analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Project records

D.

Performance reviews

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Questions 30

An output of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Project scope statement.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Requirements traceability matrix.

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Questions 31

When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

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Questions 32

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Duration?

Options:

A.

Critical path

B.

Rolling Wave

C.

PDM

D.

Para metric

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Questions 33

The organizational process assets that are of particular importance to Plan Communications are:

Options:

A.

Formal plans and procedures

B.

Lessons learned and historical information

C.

Guidelines and knowledge bases

D.

Stakeholder positions and their influence

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Questions 34

Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:

Options:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Analytical techniques.

C.

Earned value management.

D.

Group decision-making techniques.

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Questions 35

Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

Options:

A.

Responsible organization

B.

Change requests

C.

Validated deliverables

D.

Organizational process assets

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Questions 36

The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Schedule Management.

B.

Develop Project Charter.

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Plan Scope Management.

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Questions 37

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

Options:

A.

Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

B.

Identify quality project standards.

C.

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.

Complete the quality control checklist.

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Questions 38

Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets and the project charter,

B.

Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.

C.

Time tables and Pareto diagrams.

D.

Activity attributes and resource calendars.

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Questions 39

A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

Options:

A.

risk management plan

B.

human resource management plan

C.

scope management plan

D.

procurement management plan

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Questions 40

Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?

Options:

A.

Resource breakdown structure

B.

Staffing management plan

C.

Project organizational chart

D.

Scope management plan

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Questions 41

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

17

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Questions 42

Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder management strategy

B.

Communication methods

C.

Issue log

D.

Change requests

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Questions 43

Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?

Options:

A.

The customer and functional managers

B.

The risk owners and stakeholders

C.

The sponsors and stakeholders

D.

The project management team

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Questions 44

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

Options:

A.

expert judgment and change requests.

B.

work performance information and change requests.

C.

organizational process asset updates and an issue log.

D.

project management plan updates and an issue log.

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Questions 45

In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?

Options:

A.

Start-to-start (SS)

B.

Start-to-finish (SF)

C.

Rnish-to-finish (FF)

D.

Finish-to-start (FS)

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Questions 46

Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?

Options:

A.

Plan Procurement Management

B.

Control Procurements

C.

Collect Requirements

D.

Plan Cost Management

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Questions 47

Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?

Options:

A.

Procurement statement of work

B.

Resource calendars

C.

Procurement document

D.

Independent estimates

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Questions 48

Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?

Options:

A.

Project life cycle

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Project initiation

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Questions 49

Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Project schedule

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Project document updates

D.

Work performance information

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Questions 50

Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

Options:

A.

updates.

B.

defect repairs.

C.

preventive actions.

D.

corrective actions.

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Questions 51

Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Create VVBS

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Define Scope

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Questions 52

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

Options:

A.

Project stakeholders

B.

Project sponsor and project stakeholder

C.

Project manager and project team

D.

Project manager and project sponsor

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Questions 53

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

Options:

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

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Questions 54

An input of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

scope baseline.

C.

project charter.

D.

validated deliverables.

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Questions 55

Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?

Options:

A.

Facilitation techniques

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Variance analysis

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Questions 56

Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

Options:

A.

Histogram

B.

Quality audits

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Performance measurement analysis

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Questions 57

Which items are components of a project management plan?

Options:

A.

Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan

B.

Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information

C.

Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars

D.

Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix

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Questions 58

Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?

Options:

A.

Enhance

B.

Share

C.

Exploit

D.

Accept

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Questions 59

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

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Questions 60

A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:

Options:

A.

The best use of communication methods.

B.

An efficient and effective communication flow.

C.

Project costs to be reduced.

D.

The best use of communication technology.

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Questions 61

What is the minimum a project schedule must include?

Options:

A.

Variance analysis

B.

A planned start date and a planned finish date for each schedule activity

C.

A critical path diagram

D.

Critical chain analysis

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Questions 62

Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?

Options:

A.

Activity cost estimates

B.

Earned value management

C.

Cost management plan

D.

Cost baseline

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Questions 63

Which of the following outputs from the Schedule Control process aids in the communication of SV, SPI or any performance status to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Performance measurements

D.

Change requests

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Questions 64

Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Integration Management

D.

Project Time Management

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Questions 65

Which Process Group's purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

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Questions 66

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

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Questions 67

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

Options:

A.

Plan Quality.

B.

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.

Perform Quality Control.

D.

Total Quality Management.

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Questions 68

When a control chart is used to monitor performance of a process, which of the following will be set by the project manager and the appropriate stakeholders to reflect the point(s) at which corrective action will be taken to prevent exceeding the specification limits?

Options:

A.

Upper and lower control limits

B.

Upper and lower specification limits

C.

Process mean

D.

Data points

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Questions 69

What happens to a stakeholder’s project influence over time?

Options:

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

C.

Stays the same.

D.

Has no bearing.

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Questions 70

Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Quality audits

C.

Design of experiments

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 71

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Close Project

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Questions 72

A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:

Options:

A.

Quality assurance.

B.

A stakeholder management plan.

C.

Project team building.

D.

Integrated change control.

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Questions 73

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

Options:

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

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Questions 74

Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Plan Quality

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Determine Budget

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Questions 75

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.

C.

Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.

D.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

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Questions 76

As part of a mid-project evaluation, your project sponsor has asked you to provide a forecast of total project cost. You should calculate the forecast using which of the following methods?

Options:

A.

BAC

B.

EAC

C.

ETC

D.

WBS

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Questions 77

Which of the following is a schedule network analysis technique that takes limited resources into account?

Options:

A.

Network reserve analysis

B.

Critical chain method

C.

Lead and lag adjustment

D.

Critical path method

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Questions 78

The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:

Options:

A.

Work performance information.

B.

Inspections and audits.

C.

Payment systems.

D.

Procurement performance reviews.

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Questions 79

A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

Options:

A.

risk data quality assessment.

B.

variance and trend analysis.

C.

data gathering and representation techniques.

D.

risk audits.

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Questions 80

Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

Options:

A.

prevention over inspection.

B.

statistical sampling.

C.

management responsibility,

D.

continuous improvement.

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Questions 81

Analyzing the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) of a project is known as:

Options:

A.

calculating cost of quality

B.

comparing project benefits

C.

performing measurements analysis

D.

identifying risks

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Questions 82

When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:

Options:

A.

under budget and behind schedule.

B.

over budget and ahead of schedule.

C.

on schedule.

D.

complete; all planned values have been earned.

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Questions 83

Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

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Questions 84

The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost Management?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

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Questions 85

Which term describes an assessment of correctness?

Options:

A.

Accuracy

B.

Precision

C.

Grade

D.

Quality

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Questions 86

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

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Questions 87

Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:

Options:

A.

Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests

B.

Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools

C.

Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project

D.

Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board

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Questions 88

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

Options:

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

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Questions 89

Which of the following tools and techniques is used to estimate cost?

Options:

A.

Budget forecast

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Activity cost estimate

D.

Three-point estimate

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Questions 90

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Person responsible for project scheduling

D.

Person who is most familiar with the task

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Questions 91

Which enterprise environmental factors may influence Plan Schedule Management?

Options:

A.

Cultural views regarding time schedules and professional and ethical behaviors

B.

Historical information and change control procedures

C.

Risk control procedures and the probability and impact matrix

D.

Resource availability and organizational culture and structure

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Questions 92

An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

Options:

A.

resource calendar.

B.

activity list.

C.

risk management plan.

D.

organizational process assets.

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Questions 93

What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

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Questions 94

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

Options:

A.

Estimate at completion

B.

Cost performance

C.

Schedule performance

D.

To-complete performance

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Questions 95

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as:

Options:

A.

Start-to-start (SS).

B.

Start-to-finish (SF).

C.

Finish-to-start (FS).

D.

Finish-to-finish (FF).

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Questions 96

In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Project schedule

D.

Resource calendars

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Questions 97

Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?

Options:

A.

Cost variance (CV)

B.

Cost performance index (CPI)

C.

Budget at completion (BAC)

D.

Variance at completion (VAC)

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Questions 98

Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

Options:

A.

Resource attributes.

B.

Resource types.

C.

Resource categories.

D.

Resource breakdown structures (RBS).

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Questions 99

The chart below is an example of a:

Options:

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

RACI chart

D.

Requirements traceability matrix

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Questions 100

Which action is included in the Control Costs process?

Options:

A.

Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled

B.

Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs

C.

Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities

D.

Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline

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Questions 101

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

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Questions 102

Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

Options:

A.

Cost risk simulation analysis

B.

Expected monetary value analysis

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Sensitivity analysis

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Questions 103

Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Plan Cost Management

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

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Questions 104

An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

Options:

A.

smooth/accommodate.

B.

force/direct,

C.

collaborate/problem solve,

D.

compromise/reconcile.

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Questions 105

An output of Control Schedule is:

Options:

A.

A project schedule network diagram

B.

A schedule management plan

C.

Schedule data

D.

Schedule forecasts

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Questions 106

A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:

Options:

A.

mitigate

B.

accept

C.

transfer

D.

avoid

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Questions 107

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

Options:

A.

Cost baseline

B.

Cost forecasting

C.

Cost variance

D.

Cost budgeting

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Questions 108

Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control process?

Options:

A.

Performance Measure

B.

Baseline Schedule

C.

Schedule Comparison

D.

Variance Analysis

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Questions 109

Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Quality Metrics

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Plan Quality

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Questions 110

When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?

Options:

A.

At project initiation

B.

During work performance analysis

C.

Throughout the life of the project

D.

At project milestones

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Questions 111

Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Schedule compression

D.

Schedule comparison bar charts

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Questions 112

Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

Options:

A.

Cost Control

B.

Quality Planning

C.

Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Cost Budgeting

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Questions 113

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

Options:

A.

expert judgment and change requests

B.

work performance information and change requests

C.

project management plan updates and work performance information

D.

issue logs and organizational process assets updates

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Questions 114

The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:

Options:

A.

Intuitive

B.

Iterative

C.

Measured

D.

Monitored

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Questions 115

Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Three-point

C.

Parametric

D.

Analogous

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Questions 116

During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Control Scope

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Questions 117

Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?

Options:

A.

Close Project or Phase

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Control Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Questions 118

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

Options:

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

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Questions 119

An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:

Options:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Activity lists.

C.

A work breakdown structure.

D.

A scope statement.

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Questions 120

Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Strategies for opportunities

C.

Decision tree analysis

D.

Risk data quality assessment

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Questions 121

Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:

Options:

A.

Decision tree diagram.

B.

Tornado diagram.

C.

Pareto diagram.

D.

Ishikawa diagram.

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Questions 122

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

Options:

A.

External

B.

Lead

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

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Questions 123

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

Options:

A.

Interactive communication

B.

Claims administration

C.

Conflict management

D.

Performance reporting

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Questions 124

When are deliverables accepted or not accepted?

Options:

A.

When the project is initiated

B.

As an output of the scope verification process

C.

When the project is closing

D.

In the contract closure process

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Questions 125

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

Options:

A.

Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B.

Precedence diagramming

C.

Project schedule network diagramming

D.

Mathematical analysis diagramming

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Questions 126

Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan

B.

Develop Project Charter

C.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

D.

Collect Requirements

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Questions 127

Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?

Options:

A.

Project Quality Management and Project Time Management

B.

Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management

C.

Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management

D.

Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management

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Questions 128

Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Project scope statement

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Project document updates

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Questions 129

If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?

Options:

A.

One

B.

Five

C.

Six

D.

Seven

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Questions 130

Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:

Options:

A.

prototypes

B.

requirements

C.

analyses

D.

benchmarks

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Questions 131

The specific technique for identifying a problem, discovering the causes that lead to it, and developing preventive actions is:

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Use of quality checklists

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Use of matrix diagrams

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Questions 132

The staffing management plan is part of the:

Options:

A.

organizational process assets.

B.

resource calendar.

C.

human resource plan.

D.

Develop Project Team process.

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Questions 133

In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?

Options:

A.

Team meetings

B.

Subcontracting teams

C.

Virtual teams

D.

Teamwork

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Questions 134

Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Questions 135

Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?

Options:

A.

Cost-reimbursable contracts

B.

Time and Material contracts (T&M)

C.

Fixed-price contracts

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)

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Questions 136

A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 137

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

Options:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

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Questions 138

External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called:

Options:

A.

Customers.

B.

Business partners.

C.

Sellers.

D.

Functional managers.

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Questions 139

Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

Options:

A.

quality audits

B.

process analysis

C.

statistical sampling

D.

benchmarking

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Questions 140

The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:

Options:

A.

sponsor

B.

customer

C.

business partners

D.

functional managers

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Questions 141

Which of the following tools and techniques are utilized in the Close Project or Phase process?

Options:

A.

Project management information system

B.

Product analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Inspection

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Questions 142

At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

Options:

A.

Result

B.

Product

C.

Service

D.

Improvement

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Questions 143

Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Questions 144

Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

A work breakdown structure

C.

The project management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Questions 145

Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?

Options:

A.

Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach

B.

Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach

C.

Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach

D.

As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach

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Questions 146

Which of the following is a complete set of indexed contract documentation, including the closed contract?

Options:

A.

Procurement package

B.

Negotiated settlements

C.

Procurement file

D.

Procurement management plan

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Questions 147

Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis and expert judgment

B.

Facilitation techniques and meetings

C.

Expert judgment and analytical techniques

D.

Performance reviews and meetings

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Questions 148

The Create WBS process is in which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

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Questions 149

Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?

Options:

A.

Product

B.

Cost benefit

C.

Stakeholder

D.

Research

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Questions 150

Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication?

Options:

A.

It includes letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes.

B.

It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion.

C.

It is the most efficient way to ensure a common understanding among all participants.

D.

It is primarily used when the volume of information to be transferred is minimal.

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Questions 151

Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:

Options:

A.

project management office

B.

portfolio manager

C.

program manager

D.

project manager

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Questions 152

Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?

Options:

A.

Control

B.

Bar

C.

Flow

D.

Pareto

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Questions 153

Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

Options:

A.

Compromising

B.

Collaborating

C.

Smoothing

D.

Problem Solving

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Questions 154

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

Options:

A.

Project management information system

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Variance analysis

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Questions 155

During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Verify Scope

C.

Control Scope

D.

Develop Schedule

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Questions 156

The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:

Options:

A.

Pareto charts.

B.

quality metrics.

C.

change requests,

D.

Ishikawa diagrams.

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Questions 157

The Closing Process Group includes which of the following Knowledge Areas?

Options:

A.

Project Risk Management and Project Procurement Management

B.

Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management

C.

Project Risk Management and Project Integration Management

D.

Project Integration Management and Project Quality Management

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Questions 158

The person assigned by the performing organization to be responsible for achieving the project objectives is the:

Options:

A.

functional manager

B.

program manager

C.

project manager

D.

portfolio manager

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Questions 159

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

Options:

A.

Nominal group technique

B.

Idea/mind mapping

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

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Questions 160

A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?

Options:

A.

Listening

B.

Facilitation

C.

Meeting management

D.

Presentation

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Questions 161

Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Limited

B.

Low to moderate

C.

Moderate to high

D.

High to almost total

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Questions 162

Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?

Options:

A.

Mandatory

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

External

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Questions 163

During which process would you obtain stakeholders’ formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

Options:

A.

Quality control

B.

Scope verification

C.

Scope control

D.

Close project

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Questions 164

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:

Options:

A.

always be applied uniformly.

B.

be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.

C.

be selected as appropriate by the project team.

D.

be applied based on ISO guidelines.

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Questions 165

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

Options:

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

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Questions 166

Types of internal failure costs include:

Options:

A.

inspections.

B.

equipment and training.

C.

lost business.

D.

reworking and scrapping.

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Questions 167

When is a project finished?

Options:

A.

After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor

B.

After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure

C.

When the project objectives have been met

D.

After resources have been released

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Questions 168

What do composite organizations involve?

Options:

A.

Functional and project managers

B.

Functional managers only

C.

Project managers only

D.

Technical managers and project managers

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Questions 169

Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process?

Options:

A.

Develop preliminary project scope statement

B.

Close Project or Phase

C.

Develop project charter

D.

Create WBS

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Questions 170

Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?

Options:

A.

Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4

B.

Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4

C.

Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6

D.

Ce = (C0 + C„, + 4Cp) / 6

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Questions 171

An input to Close Project or Phase is:

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables,

B.

Final products or services,

C.

Document updates,

D.

Work performance information.

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Questions 172

An output of the Close Project (or Close Phase) process is:

Options:

A.

accepted deliverables

B.

organizational process asset updates

C.

work performance information

D.

project management plan updates

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Questions 173

A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?

Options:

A.

US$S000

B.

US$9500

C.

US$10,000

D.

US$12,500

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Questions 174

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

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Questions 175

In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

Options:

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Integration Management

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Questions 176

Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?

Options:

A.

Customers

B.

Project sponsors

C.

Project management team

D.

Insurance claims department

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Questions 177

Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success. Who is responsible for managing this dual reporting relationship factor?

Options:

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Functional manager supported by the project manager

D.

Project management office

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Questions 178

Organizations perceive risks as:

Options:

A.

events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.

B.

the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.

C.

events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.

D.

the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

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Questions 179

In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

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Questions 180

Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?

Options:

A.

Flowcharting

B.

Earned value

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Pareto analysis

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Questions 181

Which stakeholder approves a project's result?

Options:

A.

Customer

B.

Sponsor

C.

Seller

D.

Functional manager

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Questions 182

In the Initiating Process Group, at what point does the project become officially authorized?

Options:

A.

When the project charter is signed

B.

When all the stakeholders agree on the scope of the project

C.

When the project manager is appointed

D.

When the necessary finance or funding is obtained

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Questions 183

Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should be:

Options:

A.

Continuous

B.

Discrete

C.

Regulated

D.

Arbitrary

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Questions 184

Which is a tool or technique used in scope definition?

Options:

A.

Templates, forms, and standards

B.

Change requests

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Project assumptions

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Questions 185

Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?

Options:

A.

Vendor risk assessment diagram

B.

Risk register

C.

Requirements traceability matrix

D.

Area of responsibility summary

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Questions 186

The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

Options:

A.

objectives

B.

schedule

C.

product

D.

approach

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Questions 187

Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

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Questions 188

The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:

Options:

A.

Define Scope.

B.

Develop Project Management Plan.

C.

Plan Scope Management.

D.

Plan Quality Management.

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Questions 189

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

Options:

A.

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B.

Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C.

Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D.

Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

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Questions 190

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

change requests

B.

team performance assessments

C.

project staff assignments

D.

project documents updates

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Questions 191

Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

Options:

A.

Product performance.

B.

Budget process.

C.

Collective capabilities.

D.

Organizational strategy.

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Questions 192

Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process?

Options:

A.

Performance report

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Requested changes

D.

Project scope statement

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Questions 193

Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?

Options:

A.

Teaming

B.

Collective bargaining

C.

Sharing

D.

Working

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Questions 194

The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

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Questions 195

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

Options:

A.

Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.

B.

Develop a risk register for risk planning.

C.

Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

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Questions 196

Most experienced project managers know that:

Options:

A.

every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK® Guide.

B.

there is no single way to manage a project.

C.

project management techniques are risk free.

D.

there is only one way to manage projects successfully.

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Questions 197

High-level project risks are included in which document?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Risk breakdown structure

C.

Project charter

D.

Risk register

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Questions 198

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?

Options:

A.

Staffing level is highest at the start.

B.

The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.

C.

The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.

D.

The cost of changes is highest at the start.

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Questions 199

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Organizational breakdown structure

C.

Resource breakdown structure

D.

Bill of materials

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Questions 200

What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?

Options:

A.

To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client's overall business objectives.

B.

To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.

C.

To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.

D.

To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages.

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Questions 201

Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?

Options:

A.

Checksheets

B.

Histograms

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Control charts

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Questions 202

Which of the following are placed at selected points in the work breakdown structure (WBS) for performance measurement?

Options:

A.

Control accounts

B.

Milestones

C.

Management points

D.

Measurement points

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Questions 203

You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the plan is effective and current?

Options:

A.

Perform periodic project performance reviews.

B.

Identify quality project standards.

C.

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.

Complete the quality control checklist.

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Questions 204

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Controlling

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Questions 205

Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Sequence Activities

D.

Direct and Manage Project Work

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Questions 206

Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:

Options:

A.

portfolio

B.

program

C.

selection

D.

sub portfolio

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Questions 207

Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?

Options:

A.

Uniform

B.

Continuous

C.

Discrete

D.

Linear

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Questions 208

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Control Schedule

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Questions 209

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Integrating all planned activities

B.

Performing the activities included in the plan

C.

Developing and maintaining the plan

D.

Execution of deliverables

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Questions 210

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

Options:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

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Questions 211

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Exploit

D.

Avoid

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Questions 212

What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

Options:

A.

0.45

B.

0.56

C.

0.70

D.

1.36

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Questions 213

A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:

Options:

A.

Historical information and the lessons-learned database.

B.

Historical information and the stakeholder register.

C.

Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database.

D.

Project documents and historical information.

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Questions 214

Which of the following is the process of identifying the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Define Activities

D.

Activity Attributes

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Questions 215

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

Options:

A.

stakeholder management strategy.

B.

communications management plan,

C.

stakeholder register,

D.

performance report.

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Questions 216

What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Risk registry

C.

Risk response planning

D.

Interviewing

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Questions 217

Which element does a project charter contain?

Options:

A.

Management reserves

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Stakeholder list

D.

Stakeholder register

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Questions 218

Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Questions 219

The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Management.

B.

Plan Risk Responses.

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

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Questions 220

Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Templates, forms, and standards

B.

Change requests

C.

Product analysis

D.

Project assumptions

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Questions 221

Which of the following is a means of reaching a group decision in which everyone agrees on a single course of action?

Options:

A.

Dictatorship

B.

Majority

C.

Plurality

D.

Unanimity

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Questions 222

An input to Conduct Procurements is:

Options:

A.

Independent estimates.

B.

Selected sellers.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Resource calendars.

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Questions 223

An output of the Manage Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

project management plan updates

B.

project staff assignments updates

C.

team performance assessments

D.

resource calendar updates

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Questions 224

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Time Management

C.

Project Communications Management

D.

Project Quality Management

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Questions 225

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

Options:

A.

Two

B.

Four

C.

Five

D.

Twelve

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Questions 226

A weighting system is a tool for which area of procurement?

Options:

A.

Plan contracting

B.

Request seller responses

C.

Select sellers

D.

Plan purchase and acquisition

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Questions 227

Which of the following are inputs into the Administer Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Payment systems, organizational process assets update, and claims administration

B.

Inspections and audits, contract change control system, and project management plan updates

C.

Procurement documents, performance reports, and approved change requests

D.

Project documents, seller proposals, and payment systems

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Questions 228

Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?

Options:

A.

Product scope description

B.

Procurement statement of work

C.

Project schedule

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

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Questions 229

Organizational process assets can be divided into which of the following two categories?

Options:

A.

Project files and corporate knowledge base

B.

Templates, and processes and procedures

C.

Standards, and processes and procedures

D.

Corporate knowledge base and processes and procedures

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Questions 230

Change request status updates are an output of which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

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Questions 231

What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

Options:

A.

Organizational chart

B.

Organizational theory

C.

Organizational structure

D.

Organizational behavior

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Questions 232

The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:

Options:

A.

Arrow Diagram.

B.

Critical Path Methodology (CPM).

C.

Activity-On-Node (AON).

D.

schedule network diagram.

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Questions 233

A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:

Options:

A.

Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages.

B.

Central coordination of communication management across projects.

C.

Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives.

D.

Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level.

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Questions 234

An output of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Accepted deliverables.

D.

Variance analysis.

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Questions 235

Which of the following processes are within the Initiating Process Group?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan and Identify Stakeholders

B.

Develop Project Management Plan and Plan Communications

C.

Develop Project Charter and Identify Stakeholders

D.

Develop Project Charter and Develop Project Scope Statement

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Questions 236

Within project integration management, the statement of work (SOW) references which aspects of the project?

Options:

A.

Strategic plan, business need, and product scope description

B.

Contract, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

C.

Business plan, project management plan, and project schedule

D.

Product lifecycle, business objective, and management strategy

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Questions 237

An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

Options:

A.

expert judgment

B.

seller proposals

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

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Questions 238

Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:

Options:

A.

cause and effect diagram.

B.

control chart.

C.

flowchart.

D.

histogram.

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Questions 239

Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Activity list

C.

Activity attributes

D.

Project calendars

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Questions 240

A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:

Options:

A.

state the guiding principles of the organization.

B.

identify alternatives to generate different approaches.

C.

state what is out of scope.

D.

outline the results of the Delphi technique.

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Questions 241

The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

Options:

A.

start-to-start (SS)

B.

start-to-finish (SF)

C.

finish-to-start (FS)

D.

finish-to-finish (FF)

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Questions 242

Which of the following is an input into the Develop Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Project staff assignments

D.

Performance reports

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Questions 243

What are assigned risk ratings based upon?

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis

B.

Assessed probability and impact

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Risk Identification

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Questions 244

Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Forecasting methods

C.

Earned value management

D.

Analytical techniques

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Questions 245

Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which document?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Risk register

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Questions 246

The run chart created during the Perform Quality Control process on a project is used to show the:

Options:

A.

relationship between two variables

B.

data points plotted in the order in which they occur

C.

most common cause of problems in a process

D.

frequency of occurrence

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Questions 247

In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Risk Control

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Questions 248

The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

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Questions 249

A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is:

Options:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Performance reporting.

C.

Bidder conferences.

D.

Reserve analysis.

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Questions 250

Which of the following is a schematic display of the project’s schedule activities and the logical relationships among them?

Options:

A.

Gantt chart

B.

Project schedule network diagram

C.

Project milestone list

D.

Activity list

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Questions 251

Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?

Options:

A.

Supportive

B.

Directive

C.

Controlling

D.

Instructive

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Questions 252

Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Probability and impact matrix

C.

Risk data quality assessment

D.

Risk categorization

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Questions 253

What is the lowest level in the Work Breakdown Structure called?

Options:

A.

Work Packages

B.

Activities

C.

Schedules

D.

Tasks

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Questions 254

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

Options:

A.

1.33

B.

2

C.

0.75

D.

0.5

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Questions 255

What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing?

Options:

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix

B.

Work breakdown structure update

C.

Project network diagram

D.

Mandatory dependencies list

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Questions 256

Your project has an EV of 100 work-days, an AC of 120 work-days, and a PV of 80 work days. What should be your concern?

Options:

A.

There is a cost under run.

B.

There is a cost overrun.

C.

May not meet deadline.

D.

The project is 20 days behind schedule.

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Questions 257

Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

Options:

A.

Program

B.

Functional

C.

Project

D.

Portfolio

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Questions 258

Which of the following is a tool and technique used in all processes within Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Records management system

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Project management software

D.

Issue log

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Questions 259

A Pareto chart is a specific type of:

Options:

A.

control chart

B.

histogram

C.

cause-and-effect diagram

D.

scatter diagram

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Questions 260

Which of the following is an output of the Plan Quality process?

Options:

A.

Project document update

B.

Control chart

C.

Cost performance baseline

D.

Organizational process asset update

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Questions 261

Which of the following procurement processes results in the awarding of a procurement contract?

Options:

A.

Administer Procurements

B.

Close Procurements

C.

Conduct Procurements

D.

Plan Procurements

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Questions 262

Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

Options:

A.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.

B.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,

C.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.

D.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.

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Questions 263

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

Options:

A.

Configuration Identification

B.

Configuration Status Accounting

C.

Configuration Verification and Audit

D.

Configuration Quality Assurance

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Questions 264

The process of developing a detailed description of the project and product is known as:

Options:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

Verify Scope.

C.

Collect Requirements.

D.

Define Scope.

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Questions 265

Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Change requests

D.

Deliverables

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Questions 266

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

Options:

A.

Before constraints have been identified

B.

Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C.

After it has been analyzed by the critical path method

D.

After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

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Questions 267

Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?

Options:

A.

A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles.

B.

A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle.

C.

A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle.

D.

A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles.

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Questions 268

Overlooking negative stakeholders can result in a/an:

Options:

A.

decreased likelihood of conflicting interests between stakeholders.

B.

decreased likelihood of the projects progress being impeded.

C.

increased likelihood of project failure.

D.

increased likelihood of project success.

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Questions 269

Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?

Options:

A.

Portfolio

B.

Project

C.

Program

D.

Operations

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Questions 270

Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

Options:

A.

Project

B.

Functional

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

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Questions 271

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

Options:

A.

a control chart.

B.

baseline.

C.

Create WBS.

D.

decomposition.

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Questions 272

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

Options:

A.

Utilize the change control process.

B.

Crash the schedule to fix the defect.

C.

Leave the defect in and work around it.

D.

Fast-track the remaining development.

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Questions 273

To which process is work performance information an input?

Options:

A.

Contract administration

B.

Direction and management of project execution

C.

Create WBS

D.

Qualitative risk analysis

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Questions 274

Which stakeholder communicates with higher levels of management to gather organizational support and promote project benefits?

Options:

A.

Portfolio manager

B.

Project sponsor

C.

Project manager

D.

Project management office

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Questions 275

Which of the following is a tool or technique for the Plan Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Bidder conferences

B.

Proposal evaluation techniques

C.

Contract types

D.

Contract change control systems

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Exam Code: PMI-001
Exam Name: Project Management Professional v5
Last Update: Nov 20, 2024
Questions: 918
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