PTCE Sample Questions Answers

Thevaricella (chickenpox) vaccine(brand nameVarivax) is alive attenuated virus vaccinethat requiresfreezingto maintain stability.

TheCDC and manufacturers (Merck) require that Varicella vaccine be stored in a freezer at:

Temperature range: -50°C to -15°C (-58°F to +5°F)

Acceptable range:-20°C to -10°C (-4°F to 14°F)

Do NOT store in the refrigerator–Refrigeration deactivates the live virus, making the vaccine ineffective.

Store in a stand-alone freezer(not in a refrigerator/freezer combo) to ensure temperature stability.

B. In the refrigerator (2°C to 8°C/36°F to 46°F)❌→Incorrect.

Refrigerationcompromises the vaccine’s potency, leading to inactivation of the live virus.

C. At room temperature (15°C to 30°C/59°F to 86°F)❌→Incorrect.

Room temperature storage causes rapid degradation of the live virus, rendering the vaccine ineffective.

D. In a warmer (30°C to 40°C/86°F to 104°F)❌→Incorrect & Unsafe.

Thisdestroysthe vaccine and makes it completely ineffective.

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) Vaccine Storage and Handling Guidelines– States that varicella vaccinesmust be stored in the freezer at -50°C to -15°C (-58°F to +5°F).

Manufacturer (Merck) Guidelines for Varivax– Specifies strict freezer storage requirements.

USP <797> & USP <800> Guidelines– Discuss vaccine stability and proper storage conditions.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers vaccine storage and handling protocols.

Proper Long-Term Storage Conditions for Varicella VaccineWhy Not the Other Options?Key References:

Look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) medications pose asignificant risk of medication errors. To reduce this risk, pharmacies should:

Use both brand and generic nameson labels to clarify drug identity.

Example:"Celexa (Citalopram)" vs. "Celebrex (Celecoxib)."

B. Place the drug next to another look-alike/sound-alike drug on the shelf if they are alphabetical.❌→Incorrect

LASA drugs shouldnotbe stored next to each other.

Example:Hydroxyzine and Hydralazine should be stored separatelyto avoid mix-ups.

C. Review the first five digits of the NDC to confirm the correct product.❌→Incorrect

The first five digits (manufacturer code) only identify the manufacturer, not the specific drug.

Instead, checking theentire NDC (all 10-11 digits) is necessary.

D. Take hazardous drug precautions.❌→Incorrect

LASA errors are a labeling issue, not a hazardous drug issue.

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) LASA Guidelines– Recommends usingboth brand and generic names on labels.

FDA & Joint Commission LASA Drug Safety Recommendations– Emphasizes labeling improvements for LASA drugs.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers medication safety and error prevention strategies.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Formula: Dose ÷ Concentration = Volume (mL)

30 mg ÷ 20 mg/mL = 1.5 mL

????Reference:PTCB Calculation Guide, Pharmacy Dosage Conversions.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Step 1: Use the formula

A math equations with black text Description automatically generated with medium confidence

Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. 2.5→Correct.2.5 mL provides the required25 mg dose.❌A. 0.5→ Incorrect. Too low.❌B. 2→ Incorrect. Under-dose.❌D. 5→ Incorrect. Over-dose.

????Reference:

USP <795>: Pharmaceutical Calculations

PTCB Exam: Dosage Conversions

Risperdal Consta (risperidone long-acting injection) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. It is supplied as a powder that must be reconstituted with a diluent before administration as an intramuscular (IM) injection.

According to the manufacturer’s storage guidelines:

Refrigeration Requirement:Risperdal Consta should be stored in a refrigerator (36°F to 46°F or 2°C to 8°C) to maintain stability.

Room Temperature Stability:If removed from refrigeration, Risperdal Consta can remain stable at room temperature (≤77°F or 25°C)for up to 14 days. After this period, the product should not be used if it has not been administered.

This stability information is critical for pharmacy technicians handling the medication, as it ensures proper storage and prevents medication degradation, which can affect efficacy and safety.

Risperdal Consta (Janssen Pharmaceuticals) Prescribing Information– Official manufacturer guidelines.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Medication Storage and Stability– Covers best practices for proper drug storage and handling.

United States Pharmacopeia (USP) Standards– Guidelines on temperature control for pharmaceutical products.

Pharmacy Technician References:This information is essential for pharmacy technicians preparing Risperdal Consta for dispensing or administration, ensuring compliance with manufacturer and regulatory guidelines.

TheNational Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)publishes a list ofhazardous drugsthat require pharmacy staff to wear appropriatepersonal protective equipment (PPE)when handling.Megestrol (Megace) and Dutasteride (Avodart)are both classified as hazardous drugs due to their potentialteratogenic and reproductive toxicity risks.

Megestrolis aprogestinused for appetite stimulation in cancer and HIV patients. It poses arisk to pregnant healthcare workersdue to potential hormonal effects.

Dutasterideis a5-alpha reductase inhibitorused forbenign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). It can beabsorbed through the skinand iscontraindicated in women of childbearing potentialdue to the risk offetal abnormalities.

Wear gloveswhen handling uncoated tablets or broken tablets.

Use respiratory protectionif there is a risk of airborne particles.

B. Furosemide and buspirone→ Incorrect; these arenot classified as hazardous drugsby NIOSH.

C. Glyburide and acetazolamide→ Incorrect; these arenot hazardous drugsrequiring PPE.

D. Glipizide and zolpidem→ Incorrect; these medications arenot hazardousper NIOSH guidelines.

NIOSH PPE Recommendations:Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

NIOSH List of Hazardous Drugs in Healthcare Settings (2020 Update)

USP <800> Hazardous Drug Handling in Healthcare Settings

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety and Hazardous Drug Handling)

AZ-Pakrefers to theAzithromycin 5-day therapy pack, which is commonly prescribed forbacterial infectionssuch as respiratory infections. The standard dosing regimen follows a"loading dose" strategyto quickly reach effective drug levels in the body:

Day 1:Taketwo tablets (500 mg total).

Days 2-5:Takeone tablet (250 mg) daily.

This regimen helps achieverapid therapeutic concentrationswhile maintaining effectiveness over five days.

A. 1 tablet PO on the current day, then 1 PO daily for 4 days→ Incorrect; aloading dose (2 tablets on Day 1)is required for proper drug efficacy.

B. 1 tablet PO on the current day, then 1 PO daily for 5 days→ Incorrect; the Z-Pak is a5-day regimen, not 6 days.

D. 3 tablets PO on the current day, then 1 PO every other day for 6 days→ Incorrect; this isnot a standard dosing regimenfor azithromycin.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

FDA Drug Monograph for Azithromycin (Z-Pak)

Lexicomp Drug Guide – Azithromycin Dosing

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmacology – Infectious Disease Medications)

Anear missis an error that iscaught and corrected before it reaches the patient, preventing harm. In this case, the pharmacistidentified that ampicillin was incorrectly entered as amoxicillinandcorrected the error before dispensing, meaning the patient never received the wrong medication.

B. Dispensing error→ Incorrect; adispensing erroroccursonly if the incorrect drug is given to the patient. Since the error was caught before dispensing, it is classified as anear miss.

C. Adverse event→ Incorrect; anadverse eventis aharmful effectexperienced by the patient, which did not happen here.

D. Unauthorized drug→ Incorrect; anunauthorized drugrefers to a drugdispensed without a valid prescription, which is not the case here.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

ISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices) Medication Safety Guidelines

FDA Medication Error Reporting and Prevention Guidelines

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Quality Assurance & Medication Safety – Error Prevention)

Sig Code Breakdown:

2 gtt = 2 drops

OU (oculus uterque) = both eyes

q4-6h = every 4 to 6 hours

p.r.n. = as needed

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Both ears?❌"AU" (auris uterque) means both ears, NOT both eyes.

B. Right ear?❌"AD" (auris dextra) means right ear.

C. Right eye?❌"OD" (oculus dexter) means right eye.

????Reference:PTCB Approved Sig Code List, ISMP Safe Prescription Writing Guidelines.

Vaccines come in different strengths for adults and children, and mix-ups can lead to underdosing or overdosing.

Storing pediatric and adult vaccines separately within the refrigerator reduces the risk of errors.

Example:PediatricCOVID-19 vaccines (lower dose) and adult doses look similar but have different concentrations.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Repackaging?❌Against CDC and USP <797> guidelines, which require vaccines to remain in their original packaging.

B. Ordering from different manufacturers?❌Not practical; most pharmacies use a single supplier for consistency.

D. Automated dispensing systems?❌Not always available for vaccines.

????Reference:CDC Vaccine Storage & Handling Guidelines, ISMP Vaccine Safety Best Practices.

TheNational Drug Code (NDC)is a10- or 11-digit numberthat uniquely identifies drugs in the U.S.

NDC format:

First set of numbers (Labeler Code):Identifies the manufacturer.

Middle set of numbers (Product Code):Identifies the specificdrug, strength, and dosage form(important for accurate product selection).

Last set of numbers (Package Code):Identifies the package size and type.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Identification of therapeutic class?❌NDC codes do not indicate a drug’s therapeutic class.

B. Locating expired medication?❌Expiration dates are printed separately on the packaging.

C. Proper storage of the medication?❌Storage requirements are determined by themanufacturer’s label, not the NDC.

????Reference:FDA NDC Directory Guidelines, PTCE Exam Study Guide.

Enbrel (etanercept) is a biologic that must be stored in the refrigerator (2°C–8°C or 36°F–46°F).

????Reference:Manufacturer Storage Guidelines, USP Refrigeration Standards.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

The abbreviation "PR" stands for "per rectum", which is a route of administration where the medication is inserted into the rectum for absorption.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:

✅A. Route of administration → Correct. "PR" means rectal administration (e.g., suppositories).

❌B. Frequency of dosing → Incorrect. Frequency abbreviations include BID (twice daily), QD (once daily), etc.

❌C. Medication strength → Incorrect. Strength is indicated by mg, mcg, etc.

❌D. Dosage form → Incorrect. Dosage forms include tablets, capsules, solutions, etc.

????Reference:

ISMP List of Common Prescription Abbreviations

PTCB Exam: Medication Order Interpretation

1 pint =473 mL(since 1 pint = 16 fluid ounces, and 1 fluid ounce = 29.5735 mL).A1% suspensionmeans1 g (1000 mg) of rifampin per 100 mLof suspension.

Total dose required:2 tbsp daily =30 mL per day(1 tbsp = 15 mL).

Total volume of the suspension:473 mL

Total rifampin required:(473 mL × 1000 mg) ÷ 100 mL =4730 mg

Each rifampin capsule contains300 mg.So,4730 mg ÷ 300 mg/capsule = 15.77 capsules, which rounds up to16 capsules.

Thus, the correct answer isC. 32 capsules(since the full pint must be compounded).

????Reference:Pharmacy compounding principles; PTCE study materials on dosage calculations.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Cyclophosphamideis ahazardous drugclassified byNIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health).USP Chapter 800mandates thatall surfaces exposed to hazardous drugs (HDs), including counting trays, must be decontaminated after each useto prevent cross-contamination.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. Decontaminated after each use→Correct.Hazardous drug residues must be removed after each use to prevent contamination.❌A. Activated before each use→ Incorrect. There is no"activation"process for hazardous drug counting trays.❌B. Disposed of after each use→ Incorrect.Counting trays are reusable but must be properly cleaned.❌D. Sterilized before each use→ Incorrect.Sterilization applies to sterile compounding, not hazardous drug handling.

????Reference:

USP <800>: Handling Hazardous Drugs in Healthcare Settings

NIOSH List of Hazardous Drugs (Cyclophosphamide)

Tall Man letteringis amedication safety strategyrecommended by theFDA, ISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices), and The Joint Commissiontoprevent medication errorscaused bylook-alike, sound-alike (LASA) drug names.

Thedistinctive portionsof similar drug names are written inuppercase lettersto highlight differences.

Helps pharmacists, technicians, and healthcare professionals distinguish medications that areeasily confuseddue to similar names.

Reduces the risk ofprescription misinterpretationandmedication errorsin pharmacy settings.

How Tall Man Lettering Works:Examples of Tall Man Lettering (ISMP and FDA-Approved List):Regular Name

Tall Man Lettering Version

prednisone

predniSONE

prednisolone

prednisoLONE

hydroxyzine

hydrOXYzine

hydralazine

hydrALAzine

dobutamine

dobutAMINE

dopamine

dopaMINE

A. Highlights the similarities in drug names.→ Incorrect. Tall Man lettering highlightsdifferences, not similarities, toprevent confusion.

B. Ensures all trade names will be capitalized.→ Incorrect. Tall Man lettering applies toboth brand and generic names, but it is used specifically for drugs with look-alike names.

D. Keeps the pharmacy inventory in alphabetic order.→ Incorrect. Inventory order is based onstandard drug names, not Tall Man lettering.

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) – Official Tall Man Lettering List.

FDA and The Joint Commission Medication Safety Guidelines.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Medication Safety Strategies.

USP <797> and ISMP Guidelines on Look-Alike, Sound-Alike Medications.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice – Error Prevention Strategies.

Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:Conclusion:Tall Man lettering is anessential tool for pharmacy techniciansto helpreduce medication errorsby drawing attention todifferencesbetweensimilar drug names, ensuringsafer dispensing and administrationof medications.

Eliquis (apixaban) is a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) that increases the risk of serious bleeding.

High-alert medications have anarrow therapeutic indexand requirespecial monitoring.

????Reference:ISMP High-Alert Medication List, FDA Eliquis Safety Warnings.

PerUSP standards, a drug with an expiration date ofMarch 2025is consideredvalid until the last day of the month, which isMarch 31, 2025. This applies unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer.

If a drug is labeledMM/YYYY, itremains valid until the last day of that month.

If a drug is labeled with aspecific day (MM/DD/YYYY), itexpires at the end of that day.

A. February 28, 2025→ Incorrect; the expiration is at the end ofMarch, not February.

B. March 1, 2025→ Incorrect; the drug is stillusable until March 31.

D. March 1, 2026→ Incorrect; the drugexpires in March 2025, not 2026.

Expiration Date Rules:Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

USP <797> Pharmaceutical Compounding – Expiration and Beyond-Use Dating (BUD) Guidelines

FDA Drug Expiration Date Regulations

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmaceutical Storage & Stability)

Pristiq (desvenlafaxine)andVenlafaxine (Effexor)belong to the same class ofserotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). They both work by inhibiting the reuptake ofserotonin (5-HT) and norepinephrine (NE), increasing their levels in the synaptic cleft to enhance neurotransmission, which is effective in treatingmajor depressive disorder (MDD).

A. Valacyclovir→ Incorrect; valacyclovir is anantiviralused to treatherpes simplex and varicella-zoster infections.It inhibits viral DNA replication, not neurotransmitter reuptake.

B. Varenicline→ Incorrect; varenicline (Chantix) is apartial nicotinic receptor agonistused forsmoking cessation, not an SNRI.

D. Verapamil→ Incorrect; verapamil is acalcium channel blocker (CCB)used forhypertension and arrhythmias, which has no relation to antidepressant mechanisms.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmacology for Technicians – Nervous System Drugs)

Lexicomp Drug Monographs for Desvenlafaxine and Venlafaxine

Goodman & Gilman’s The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics

Phenytoin (Dilantin)is ananticonvulsantthatstabilizes neuronal membranesbyblocking sodium channels, reducing seizure activity.

Used forepilepsy, tonic-clonic seizures, and status epilepticus.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Clonidine?❌Used forhypertension and ADHD, NOT seizures.

B. Atomoxetine?❌Used forADHD, NOT seizures.

C. Guanfacine?❌Used forhypertension and ADHD, NOT seizures.

????Reference:FDA Drug Label for Phenytoin, Epilepsy Foundation Guidelines.

Escitalopram (Lexapro)is aselective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)used formajor depressive disorder (MDD) and generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). If escitalopram isnon-formulary, a suitable alternative would besertraline (Zoloft), anotherSSRIwith a similar mechanism of action and indication.

A. Cabergoline→ Incorrect; cabergoline is adopamine agonistused to treathyperprolactinemia, not depression or anxiety.

B. Ciprofloxacin→ Incorrect; ciprofloxacin is afluoroquinolone antibiotic, unrelated to antidepressant therapy.

D. Amantadine→ Incorrect; amantadine is anantiviral and antiparkinsonianagent, not used for depression.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmacology for Technicians – Nervous System Drugs)

Lexicomp Drug Monographs for SSRIs (Escitalopram & Sertraline)

Goodman & Gilman’s The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics

Emulsionsaremixtures of two immiscible liquids (e.g., oil and water) stabilized by an emulsifying agent.

When an emulsion breaks (phase separation occurs), the oil and water separate permanently, rendering the medication unusable.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Tinctures?❌Alcohol-based solutions with dissolved drug, no phase separation occurs.

B. Solutions?❌Homogeneous mixtures that do NOT separate.

C. Suspensions?❌May settle over time but can be re-mixed by shaking.

????Reference:USP <795> Compounded Dosage Forms, PTCE Compounding Guidelines.

Risperidone (Risperdal oral solution)is anatypical antipsychoticused to treatschizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and autism-related irritability.

Itsoral liquid formulationmust be storedin the refrigerator (between 2°C and 8°C or 36°F to 46°F)to maintain stability.

If left at room temperature for an extended period, theactive ingredients can degrade, reducing the medication's effectiveness.

Storage Considerations for Other Medications:

Gabapentin (Neurontin liquid formulation):Must be refrigerated.✅

Sertraline (Zoloft oral solution):Stored at room temperature.❌

Aripiprazole (Abilify liquid formulation):Stored at room temperature.❌

????Reference:Manufacturer’s storage guidelines,USP Chapter <797>for compounded sterile preparations.

Amlodipine(10 mg) anddiltiazem(30 mg) are bothcalcium channel blockers (CCBs)used to treat hypertension and angina.

When a patient is prescribed two medications from the same therapeutic class, the pharmacy's prescription processing system may flag this as"therapeutic duplication."

This alert is meant toprevent potential adverse effectssuch as excessive lowering of blood pressure or heart rate.

A. Prior authorization required→ Not applicable unless the insurance requires special approval before covering the drug.

C. NDC not covered→ Would appear if the specific drug product (based on its National Drug Code) is not covered by insurance, but this scenario relates to duplication, not coverage.

D. Refill too soon→ This applies to refilling a medication before the allowed time frame, but the scenario describes a new prescription.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Drug Interactions and Therapeutic Duplication

Lexicomp and Micromedex Drug Databases– Reference sources for drug classifications.

ISMP Guidelines on Preventing Therapeutic Duplication Errors

Why Other Answers Are Incorrect?Pharmacy Technician References:

ARisk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS)program is required by theFDAfor certain medications that have serious safety concerns, ensuring their risks do not outweigh their benefits.Mycophenolateis subject to a REMS program due to its severe teratogenic effects.

(A) Sertraline❌Not Subject to REMS

Sertraline (Zoloft) is aSelective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI)used to treat depression and anxiety.

While SSRIs can carry arisk of birth defects (such as persistent pulmonary hypertension in newborns - PPHN),sertraline is not included in the REMS program.

(B) Ondansetron❌Not Subject to REMS

Ondansetron (Zofran) is anantiemeticused to prevent nausea and vomiting.

While some studies suggest a possible increased risk of congenital defects, it isnot part of a REMS program.

(C) Montelukast❌Not Subject to REMS

Montelukast (Singulair) is aleukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA)used forasthma and allergies.

It has aBoxed Warningfor mental health side effects butis not subject to a REMS program for pregnancy risks.

(D) Mycophenolate✅Correct – Subject to REMS

Mycophenolate (CellCept, Myfortic)is animmunosuppressantused to prevent organ rejection in transplant patients.

It carries ahigh risk of birth defects and miscarriage, making pregnancy preventionmandatorywhile taking the medication.

TheMycophenolate REMS Programrequires:

Mandatory counselingon pregnancy risks

Negative pregnancy testsbefore starting therapy

Use of effective contraceptionbefore, during, and after treatment

FDA REMS Program for Mycophenolate:https://www.mycophenolaterems.com/

FDA REMS Program Overview: https://www.fda.gov/drugs/risk-evaluation-and-mitigation-strategies-rems

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Medication Safety & Risk Management

Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Diflucan (fluconazole) is an antifungal, whileDiprivan (propofol) is a sedative/anesthetic used for surgery.

Look-Alike, Sound-Alike (LASA) errorsoccur when medications havesimilar names but different indications.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. Clonidine (BP medication) & Klonopin (anxiolytic)→ LASA error but not antifungal vs. anesthetic.

C. Metronidazole (antibiotic) & Metformin (diabetes drug)→ LASA error but different categories.

D. Amiloride (diuretic) & Amlodipine (BP medication)→ LASA error but different categories.

????Reference:ISMP List of High-Risk LASA Medications.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Pseudoephedrine(Sudafed) is asympathomimetic decongestantthat causesvasoconstrictionand canincrease blood pressure.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. Hypertension→Correct.Pseudoephedrinecan cause arise in blood pressure, so it should be used cautiously in patients withhypertension.❌A. Asthma→ Incorrect.Pseudoephedrine does not directly worsen asthma, but it may cause mild bronchodilation.❌C. Hypokalemia→ Incorrect.Pseudoephedrine does not affect potassium levels.❌D. Eczema→ Incorrect. Eczema is unrelated topseudoephedrine use.

????Reference:

Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA) Regulations

American Heart Association (AHA) Guidelines on Hypertension

ANarrow Therapeutic Index (NTI) drugis a medication in whichsmall differences in dose or blood concentrationcan lead to serioustoxicityorsubtherapeutic effects. These drugs requirecareful dosing and monitoringto avoid adverse effects or treatment failure.

Small Margin of Safety:The difference between theminimum effective concentration (MEC)and theminimum toxic concentration (MTC)is very narrow.

Requires Therapeutic Drug Monitoring (TDM):Blood levels of the drug must be regularly monitored to maintain efficacy while avoiding toxicity.

High Risk of Adverse Effects:Even minor dosage adjustments or variations in patient metabolism can cause toxicity.

Strict Pharmacokinetic and Pharmacodynamic Considerations:Factors likerenal and hepatic function, drug interactions, and patient weightsignificantly impact the drug’s effect.

Warfarin (Coumadin) → Risk of bleeding.

Digoxin → Risk of toxicity affecting the heart.

Phenytoin → Risk of severe neurological effects.

Levothyroxine → Risk of under- or over-treatment of thyroid disorders.

Theophylline → Risk of respiratory or cardiac toxicity.

Carbamazepine → Risk of serious neurological side effects.

A. Shorter window of guaranteed stability.→ Incorrect. NTI drugs do not necessarily have a shorter shelf-life or stability concerns compared to other drugs. Stability depends on formulation and storage conditions.

B. Incompatibility with therapeutic monitoring.→ Incorrect. NTI drugsrequiretherapeutic monitoring, not the opposite.

C. Synergistic effect on other medications.→ Incorrect. While NTI drugs can interact with other drugs, not all exhibit a synergistic effect (where combined drugs produce a greater effect than expected).

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Medication Safety and Quality Assurance(Monitoring NTI drugs).

FDA Narrow Therapeutic Index Drug List(Guidelines on NTI medications).

Lexicomp and Micromedex Drug Databases(Provide monitoring recommendations for NTI drugs).

USP <800> Hazardous Drugs and USP <797> Sterile Compounding Guidelines(Ensure safe handling and dispensing of NTI drugs).

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice(NTI drug classification and monitoring).

Key Characteristics of NTI Drugs:Examples of NTI Drugs:Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:

Lamivudine (Epivir)is anantiretroviral agent used to treat HIV/AIDS and hepatitis B. Some antiretroviral drugs are classified ashigh-alert medications in certain healthcare settingsbecause:

Dosing errors can lead to treatment failure or resistance.

Severe side effects and toxicities may occur if misused.

TheInstitute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)includes some antiretrovirals in theirhigh-alert medication list, especially in hospitals.

A. Meperidine❌→Not an antiretroviral; it's a narcotic analgesic (opioid pain reliever).

B. Olopatadine❌→Not an antiretroviral; it's an antihistamine (used for allergies).

D. Tizanidine❌→Not an antiretroviral; it's a muscle relaxant.

ISMP High-Alert Medication List– Includes certainantiretroviral drugs as high-alert medications in some settings.

FDA Drug Labeling for Lamivudine (Epivir)– ListsHIV/AIDS and Hepatitis B as indications.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers high-alert medications and their risks.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Controlled substances (Schedules I–V) are classified by the DEA based on their potential for abuse, medical use, and dependence risk.

Schedule I (highest risk, no medical use):Heroin, LSD, Ecstasy.

Schedule II (high abuse potential, medical use):Oxycodone, Morphine, Fentanyl.

Schedule III (moderate abuse potential):Codeine combinations, Ketamine.

Schedule IV (low abuse potential):Alprazolam, Zolpidem.

Schedule V (lowest risk):Cough syrups with low doses of codeine.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. All contain hydrocodone?❌OnlySchedule II and IIImay contain hydrocodone.

C. FDA-approved indications?❌Schedule I drugs haveno FDA-approved medical use.

D. Insurance verification?❌Not all controlled drugs require insurance verification.

????Reference:DEA Controlled Substance Act, PTCB Controlled Substances Guide.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

The FDA requires patient package inserts (PPIs) for certain medications, including oral contraceptives like norethindrone/ethinyl estradiol.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:

✅B. Norethindrone/Ethinyl Estradiol → Correct. Oral contraceptives must include a PPI with risk information.

❌A. Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim → Incorrect. Does not require a package insert.

❌C. Triamterene/HCTZ → Incorrect. A diuretic, no required PPI.

❌D. Emtricitabine/Tenofovir Disoproxil → Incorrect. A PPI is required only for certain formulations.

????Reference:

FDA Patient Information Leaflet Requirements

MedWatch is the FDA’s reporting system for adverse drug events, medication errors, and safety concerns.

????Reference:FDA MedWatch Program.

A vaccine administration error occurs when a vaccine is given in a way that deviates from standard guidelines established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the vaccine manufacturer’s recommendations. Some administration errors must be reported voluntarily to theVaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS)to help improve vaccine safety and prevent future errors.

(A) Fluzone was administered subcutaneously.✅(Incorrect Route – Error that Should Be Reported)

Fluzone is aninactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)that should be administeredintramuscularly (IM).

Subcutaneous (SQ) administration isnot recommendedand may reduce vaccine efficacy.

According to theCDC and the Immunization Action Coalition (IAC), administering an inactivated influenza vaccine subcutaneously is a vaccine administration error and should be reported.

(B) Boostrix was administered intramuscularly.❌(Correct Route – No Error)

Boostrix is aTdap (Tetanus, Diphtheria, and Acellular Pertussis) vaccineindicated for booster immunization.

It iscorrectly administered intramuscularly (IM)in thedeltoid muscle.

Since the correct administration route was followed, this does not qualify as a vaccine administration error.

(C) Varivax was administered subcutaneously.❌(Correct Route – No Error)

Varivax is alive-attenuated varicella (chickenpox) vaccine.

It iscorrectly administered subcutaneously (SQ), typically in the upper arm or thigh.

Since the correct administration route was followed, this is not a vaccine administration error.

(D) Shingrix was administered intramuscularly.❌(Correct Route – No Error)

Shingrix is arecombinant zoster vaccine (RZV)used for shingles prevention.

It should be administeredintramuscularly (IM).

Since the correct administration route was followed, this is not a vaccine administration error.

TheInstitute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)and theCDCrecommend reportingvaccine administration errorsto VAERS, especially if the error could affect the vaccine’s efficacy or patient safety.

Administration of Fluzonevia the incorrect route (subcutaneously instead of intramuscularly)could alter immune response and should be reported.

If a vaccine is given via the incorrect route, the CDC provides guidance on whether the dose needs to be repeated. For inactivated influenza vaccines given subcutaneously, the CDC states that the dose doesnot need to be repeated, but the error should still be documented and reported.

CDC General Best Practices for Immunization:https://www.cdc.gov/vaccines/hcp/acip-recs/general-recs/index.html

Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS): https://vaers.hhs.gov/

Immunization Action Coalition (IAC) - Vaccine Administration Guidelines: https://www.immunize.org/technical-support/administering-vaccines/

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) - Vaccine Safety Recommendations: https://www.ismp.org/recommendations/immunization-safety

Analysis of Each Answer Choice:Reporting Vaccine Administration Errors:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Arexvyis anRSV (respiratory syncytial virus) vaccinefor adults60+ years.

Oncereconstituted, itmust be used within 4 hoursto ensurestability and potency.

After4 hours, bacterial growth andloss of vaccine efficacymake it unsafe for administration.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. 30 minutes?❌Too short—vaccines are stable for a longer duration.

C. 24 hours?❌Too long—Arexvy degrades faster.

D. 1 week?❌No vaccine remains effective for 7 days after reconstitution.

????Reference:CDC Vaccine Storage & Handling Guidelines,Arexvy Manufacturer Labeling (GSK).

Therapy duration (length of treatment)must be specified, especially forantibiotics, to ensureappropriate treatment completion and prevent antibiotic resistance.

Typical duration for amoxicillin:

7–10 days for infections

5 days for strep throat

????Reference:CDC Antibiotic Prescribing Guidelines, PTCE Prescription Requirements.

Oxybutynin (Ditropan, Oxytrol)is ananticholinergic/antispasmodicmedication thatrelaxes the bladder musclesto treatoveractive bladder (OAB).

It reduces symptoms such asfrequent urination, urgency, and urinary incontinenceby blockingmuscarinic receptorsthat control bladder contractions.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Bronchitis?❌No, bronchitis is treated withbronchodilators, steroids, or antibiotics.

B. Hyperlipidemia?❌No, hyperlipidemia (high cholesterol) is treated withstatins (e.g., atorvastatin).

D. Pancreatitis?❌No, pancreatitis is managed withIV fluids, pain control, and pancreatic enzyme therapy.

????Reference:FDA Oxybutynin Drug Label, Pharmacology of Urinary Anticholinergics.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Ahazardous drug spill kitisrequiredunderUSP <800>, which outlinessafe handling practices for hazardous drugs (HDs). The kit must contain:

Disposable scoop and scraper(to safely collect broken glass and contaminated material).

Absorbent pads or spill control pillows(for liquid spills).

Chemotherapy-rated gloves, gown, goggles, and mask(for protection).

A hazardous waste disposal bag(to properly dispose of contaminated materials).

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅D. A disposable scoop for glass fragments→Correct.Adisposable scoop is essentialto safely removehazardous drug spills containing broken glass.❌A. Permeable, disposable protective garments→ Incorrect. PPE for hazardous drug spills must beimpermeable(e.g., coated gowns).❌B. Sufficient supplies to absorb a spill of about 10,000 mL→ Incorrect.Most spill kits are designed for smaller spills (≤1000 mL), not massive industrial spills.❌C. Reusable absorbent sponges or toweling→ Incorrect.All absorbent materials must be disposable to prevent contamination.

????Reference:

USP <800>: Handling Hazardous Drugs in Healthcare Settings

NIOSH List of Hazardous Drugs (2020 Update)

PTCB Exam: Medication Safety & Hazardous Drug Management

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

TheDEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) mandates that controlled substance records must be kept for at least 2 years.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. 2 years→Correct.TheControlled Substances Act (CSA) requires pharmacies to maintain records for at least 2 years.❌A. 1 year→ Incorrect.Too short.❌C. 5 years→ Incorrect.Some states require longer retention, but federal law states 2 years.❌D. 7 years→ Incorrect.Not required by federal law.

????Reference:

DEA Controlled Substances Act (21 CFR § 1304.04)

PTCB Exam: Pharmacy Law & Regulations

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Corticosteroidsare a class of medications used toreduce inflammation.Fluocinoloneis atopical corticosteroidused foreczema, psoriasis, and allergic reactions.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. Fluocinolone→Correct.Fluocinolone is a corticosteroidused in skin conditions.❌A. Progesterone→ Incorrect.Progesterone is a hormone, not a corticosteroid.❌C. Methyltestosterone→ Incorrect.Methyltestosterone is an androgen (male hormone).❌D. Spironolactone→ Incorrect.Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, not a steroid.

????Reference:

FDA Drug Classification Database

USP Drug Information Handbook

Lipitor is the brand name forAtorvastatin, aHMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (statin)used to lower cholesterol and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

(A) Provastatin❌Incorrect –Misspelled, should bePravastatin(Pravachol).

(B) Fluvastatin❌Incorrect – Fluvastatin (Lescol) is another statin, but not the generic for Lipitor.

(C) Simvastatin❌Incorrect – Simvastatin (Zocor) is a statin but not the generic for Lipitor.

(D) Atorvastatin✅Correct – The generic name for Lipitor.

Analysis of Answer Choices:Statins & Their Brand Names:Generic Name

Brand Name

Atorvastatin

Lipitor✅

Simvastatin

Zocor

Pravastatin

Pravachol

Fluvastatin

Lescol

Rosuvastatin

Crestor

Lovastatin

Mevacor

Lipitor Prescribing Information: https://www.pfizer.com/products/product-detail/lipitor

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Generic & Brand Name Drug Recognition

Pharmacology for Pharmacy Technicians, 3rd Edition – Perspective on Statin Medications

References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS)areFDA-required programsto ensure that thebenefits of certain medications outweigh their risks. REMS programsrestrict prescribing, dispensing, and monitoringdue to the potential for serious side effects or misuse.

Suboxoneis used foropioid dependenceand containsbuprenorphine, apartial opioid agonist, which can causeaddiction, misuse, and respiratory depressionif used improperly.

REMS Requirements for Suboxone:

Prescriber Certification:Only specially certified providers can prescribe Suboxone.

Patient Education:Patients must be informed about the risks of misuse, overdose, and dependence.

Limited Dispensing:Pharmacists must ensure prescriptions meet REMS criteria before dispensing.

A. Xarelto (Rivaroxaban).→ Incorrect. While Xarelto is an anticoagulant, it isnot under REMS.

C. Warfarin.→ Incorrect. Warfarin requires monitoring butdoes not have a REMS program.

D. Haloperidol.→ Incorrect. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic, but itdoes not have a REMS program.

FDA REMS Program List (www.accessdata.fda.gov).

Suboxone REMS Guidelines (www.suboxonerems.com).

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – REMS and Medication Safety.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice – REMS Regulations.

Why Is Suboxone (Buprenorphine/Naloxone) Under REMS?Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Adispensing erroroccurs when a pharmacy provides amedication that differs from the prescribed order.This may involvewrong drug, dose, form, or incorrect labeling.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅D. Received by the patient→Correct.Adispensing error is an error in what the patient actually receives, not what they request.❌A. Requested by the patient→ Incorrect.A patient request does not determine dispensing errors.❌B. On the plan formulary→ Incorrect.Formulary status affects insurance, not dispensing accuracy.❌C. Supplied by the wholesaler→ Incorrect.Errors in supply do not qualify as dispensing errors.

????Reference:

ISMP Guidelines on Medication Errors

PTCB Medication Safety Guidelines

Prochlorperazine (Compazine suppository)requiresrefrigeration(store at2°C to 8°C / 36°F to 46°F) to maintain stability.

Other suppositories are stored atroom temperatureunless specified.

????Reference:Manufacturer Storage Guidelines, USP Storage Standards.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

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Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

MedWatchis theFDA's Safety Information and Adverse Event Reporting Program, used totrack drug and device safety concerns.Pharmacists and healthcare professionals should report:

Adverse drug reactions (ADRs).

Medical device failures or malfunctions.

Medication errors that lead to harm.

Product quality issues related to safety.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅D. Medical device malfunctions→Correct.MedWatch monitors medical device safety, including pacemakers, insulin pumps, and inhalers.❌A. Medication reimbursement complaints→ Incorrect.Billing and insurance issues are not handled by MedWatch.❌B. Damaged medications received from a wholesaler→ Incorrect.These issues should be reported to the wholesaler or manufacturer, not MedWatch.❌C. Complaints about pharmacy staff→ Incorrect.These concerns should be reported to the state board of pharmacy.

????Reference:

FDA MedWatch Program

PTCB Exam: Medication Safety & Reporting

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

To preventheparin dosing errors, theFDA requires labeling to display:

Strength per total volume (e.g., 10,000 units/10 mL)

Strength per mL in parentheses (e.g., 1,000 units/mL)

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. Strength per mL enclosed in parentheses→Correct.❌A. Percentage weight per volume→ Incorrect.Heparin is not measured this way.❌B. Volume per total strength→ Incorrect.Reverse order of required labeling.❌D. mL per dose enclosed in parentheses→ Incorrect.Dosing varies by prescription.

????Reference:

FDA Heparin Labeling Guidelines

When adrug recalloccurs due totemperature excursions(exposure to temperatures outside the manufacturer’s recommended range during transport or storage), the pharmacy mustimmediately remove all affected productfrom its inventory to prevent dispensing compromised medication.

Remove the Affected Product:Quarantine the recalled drug to ensure it is not dispensed.

Verify the Recall Details:Confirm the lot number, expiration date, and reason for the recall using FDA or manufacturer recall notices.

Document the Recall Action:Log details in the pharmacy's recall records for compliance.

Follow Manufacturer or FDA Instructions:Some recalls require returning the product, while others require disposal according to hazardous waste guidelines.

Notify Patients and Providers (If Necessary):If the medication has already been dispensed, further action may be needed depending on recall severity.

B. Contact patients who received a therapeutically equivalent product.→ Incorrect. The recall applies to thespecificaffected lot, not all similar medications. Pharmacists would first verify which patients received the recalled drugbefore contacting them.

C. Switch patients from the oral solution to oral capsules.→ Incorrect. The recall does not automatically require a formulation change. The pharmacy must verify availability of unaffected stock or alternative treatments before making substitutions.

D. Contact all prescribers who recently prescribed the product.→ Incorrect. While prescribersmayneed notification if the recall affects patient treatment, thefirst stepis ensuring the recalled product is removed from stock to prevent further dispensing.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Medication Safety and Recall Procedures.

FDA Drug Recall Guidelines (www.fda.gov).

USP <1079> Good Storage and Distribution Practices for Pharmaceuticals.

National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) Recall Compliance Standards.

Manufacturer Recall Notices (Example: Pfizer, Eli Lilly, etc.).

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice – Recall Classifications and Actions.

Steps to Follow in a Drug Recall:Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:

Butorphanolis aSchedule IV controlled substanceunder theControlled Substances Act (CSA). It is anopioid analgesicused formoderate-to-severe painandmigraine relief. Due to itsabuse potential, it is classified as acontrolled substanceand requires special handling in pharmacies.

A. Metoprolol→ Incorrect; metoprolol is abeta-blockerforhypertension and heart diseaseand isnot a controlled substance.

C. Carvedilol→ Incorrect; carvedilol is also abeta-blockerforheart failure and hypertension, not a controlled drug.

D. Propranolol→ Incorrect; propranolol is abeta-blockerused forhypertension, migraines, and anxiety, but it isnot a controlled substance.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

DEA Controlled Substances List (Schedule IV – Butorphanol)

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmacy Laws & Regulations – Controlled Substances)

Federal Controlled Substances Act (CSA)

A potential error is a mistake that is identified and corrected before it reaches the patient.

Example:A technician fillshydralazineinstead ofhydroxyzine, but the pharmacist catches the mistake before dispensing.

????Reference:ISMP Medication Error Categories, PTCE Pharmacy Error Prevention Guide.

Schedule III & IV drugs can be refilled up to 5 times within 6 months from the date written.

After 6 months or 5 refills, a new prescription is required.

????Reference:DEA Controlled Substance Act (21 CFR 1306).

Pharmacy technicians help patients adhere to medication regimens by scheduling refills, promoting medication synchronization, and assisting with adherence packaging.

????Reference:PTCB Medication Adherence Guidelines, Pharmacy Technician Role in Patient Care.

Incompatibility in a nonsterile compound can be identified through various physical, chemical, and therapeutic changes.An unexpected change in odoris a key indicator of chemical instability, contamination, or degradation of a compounded preparation. Some ingredients may break down into volatile compounds, leading to noticeable odor changes.

A. A clear solution→ Incorrect; clarity alone does not indicate incompatibility.Some solutions may be clear but still chemically unstable.

B. The use of a pH buffer system→ Incorrect; buffer systems are used to maintain pH stability and prevent incompatibility rather than indicate it.

D. Suspension particles settling to the bottom of a container→ Incorrect; suspensions naturally settle and require shaking before use.This is not necessarily a sign of incompatibility.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

USP <795> Pharmaceutical Compounding—Nonsterile Preparations

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Quality Assurance)

Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

To calculate the percentage ofpsylliumin the final preparation:

Formula:

A math equations with numbers and symbols Description automatically generated with medium confidence

Sincepsylliummakes up500 gout of1000 g (1 kg)of the bulk laxative, it accounts for50%of the total formulation.

????Reference:

USP <795>Compounding Standards

PTCE ExamPharmaceutical Calculations

Chemotherapy drugs (e.g., methotrexate, cisplatin)arehigh-alertdue to theirtoxicity, risk of overdose, and narrow therapeutic index.

????Reference:ISMP High-Alert Medication List, PTCE Study Materials.

To calculate how muchamoxicillin suspensionwill be used in the first5 days, we follow these steps:

Amoxicillin concentration:250 mg per5 mL

Dosage:1 tsp (5 mL) three times daily (tid)

Duration:First5 days

Step 1: Identify Given InformationStep 2: Calculate Total Daily Volume5 mL×3=15 mL per day5 \text{ mL} \times 3 = 15 \text{ mL per day}5 mL×3=15 mL per day

Step 3: Multiply by 5 Days15 mL/day×5 days=75 mL15 \text{ mL/day} \times 5 \text{ days} = 75 \text{ mL}15 mL/day×5 days=75 mL

Thus, the patient will use75 mLof medication in the first5 days.

A. 25 mL→ Incorrect; this would be correct if taken onlyonce dailyinstead ofthree times daily.

B. 50 mL→ Incorrect; this is the correct amount for3.3 days, not 5 days.

D. 150 mL→ Incorrect; this is thefull 10-day course, not just the first 5 days.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmaceutical Calculations – Dosage & Volume Calculations)

USP <795> Nonsterile Compounding Guidelines

Lexicomp Drug Monograph for Amoxicillin Suspension

Addyi (flibanserin)is used to treat hypoactive sexual desire disorder (HSDD) in premenopausal women. It is subject to aRisk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) programbecause of its potential to causesevere hypotension (low blood pressure) and syncope (fainting), especially when taken with alcoholor moderate-to-strong CYP3A4 inhibitors.

The REMS program requires healthcare providers and pharmacists to be certified before prescribing or dispensing Addyi. Patients must be counseled on the risks, and alcohol use is strictly contraindicated while taking this medication.

B. is an emergency oral contraceptive→ Incorrect. Addyi is not a contraceptive; it treats HSDD.

C. contains an opioid analgesic→ Incorrect. Addyi is not an opioid; it affects serotonin and dopamine receptors.

D. is a monoclonal antibody→ Incorrect. Addyi is a non-hormonal serotonin receptor agonist/antagonist, not a monoclonal antibody.

Incorrect Answer Choices:Pharmacy Technician References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety and REMS Programs)

FDA REMS Database for Addyi (Flibanserin)

Lexicomp Drug Monograph on Addyi

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review

Pharmacy technicians must notify the pharmacistimmediatelyif a patient has an allergy to a prescribed medication.Dispensing an allergenic drug could cause severe reactions, including anaphylaxis.

Check for allergies and drug interactionsin the patient’s profile.

Alert the pharmacistif an allergy is detected.

Ensure proper labelingfor allergy warnings.

(A) To obtain the patient’s medication history❌Incorrect – Technicians can review medication history, but pharmacists must intervene forallergies or significant concerns.

(B) If the patient is allergic to the prescribed medication✅Correct – An allergy could be life-threatening and requires pharmacist intervention.

(C) To clarify the date and time of the order❌Incorrect – Technicians can check the order date, but this is not a critical pharmacist intervention.

(D) If a patient has never taken the prescribed medication before❌Incorrect – Whilefirst-time medication use requires counseling, it does not always require pharmacist intervention unless there aredrug interactions, high-risk medications, or allergies.

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) – Allergy Checking Protocols:https://www.ismp.org

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Medication Order Processing & Pharmacist Consultation

Key Responsibilities of a Pharmacy Technician in Medication Order Entry:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Procardiais thebrand name for Nifedipine, acalcium channel blocker (CCB)used totreat hypertension and angina.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅A. Nifedipine→Correct.Procardia = Nifedipine.❌B. Felodipine→ Incorrect.Another CCB, but not the generic for Procardia.❌C. Diltiazem→ Incorrect.A different CCB (Cardizem).❌D. Amlodipine→ Incorrect.A CCB (Norvasc), but not the generic for Procardia.

????Reference:

FDA Orange Book

PTCB Exam: Generic & Brand Name Medications

Methotrexateis achemotherapy agentand animmunosuppressantused for cancer and autoimmune diseases.

It is classified ashazardous pharmaceutical wasteunderResource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)due to itstoxicity.

It must be disposed of followingEPA guidelines for hazardous waste disposal.

????Reference:RCRA hazardous waste disposal regulations;USP <800> guidelines for hazardous drugs.

Meclizine (Bonine, Dramamine Less Drowsy)is anover-the-counter (OTC) antihistamineused to treatmotion sickness and vertigo. It works by blockinghistamine (H1) receptorsin thevestibular system, reducing nausea and dizziness associated with motion sickness.

B. Olanzapine→ Incorrect; olanzapine is anatypical antipsychoticused forschizophrenia and bipolar disorder, not motion sickness.

C. Promethazine→ Incorrect; promethazine is anantihistaminethat treatsnausea and motion sickness, but it isonly available by prescription (Rx).

D. Scopolamine→ Incorrect; scopolamine is aprescription (Rx) medicationintransdermal patch formused formotion sickness prevention.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

FDA Drug Monograph for Meclizine (OTC Drug Labeling)

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (OTC Medications & Indications)

Lexicomp Drug Monographs for Meclizine, Promethazine, and Scopolamine

Methadone is a Schedule II controlled substanceunder theControlled Substances Act (CSA).

Pharmacies must useDEA Form 222orCSOS (Controlled Substance Ordering System)to orderSchedule II drugs.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Buspirone?❌NOT a controlled substance(used for anxiety).

B. Nortriptyline?❌NOT a controlled substance(an antidepressant).

D. Sildenafil (Viagra)?❌NOT a controlled substance(used for erectile dysfunction).

????Reference:DEA Controlled Substance Ordering Requirements (21 CFR 1305).

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Stock rotation (First In, First Out - FIFO)ensures thatolder medications are used before newer stock, reducing expired medication dispensing.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. Rotating stock on a regular basis→Correct.FIFO method reduces waste and errors.❌A. Verifying each lot number→ Incorrect.Lot numbers do not indicate expiration dates.❌B. Using the newest medications first→ Incorrect.Older stock should be used first.❌D. Using the last in, first out method→ Incorrect.Opposite of the correct practice.

????Reference:

USP <1079>: Medication Storage and Inventory Control

PTCB Exam: Inventory Management

TheInstitute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)maintains a list oferror-prone abbreviationsthat shouldnot be usedin medication orders to prevent misinterpretation and medication errors.

Analysis of the Answer Choices:Abbreviation

Meaning

ISMP Recommendation

U

Units

❌Do NOT use→ Can be mistaken for "0" or "4" (e.g., 10U could be misread as 100).Use"unit"instead.

AD

Right ear

❌Do NOT use→ Can be confused with "OD" (right eye).Use"right ear"instead.

AU

Both ears

❌Do NOT use→ Can be confused with "OU" (both eyes).Use"both ears"instead.

gtt

Drop

✅Accepted→ Common and not considered error-prone.

Since"gtt" for drop is not on ISMP's "Do Not Use" list, it is the correct answer.

ISMP List of Error-Prone Abbreviations– Confirms that "U," "AD," and "AU" should not be used in prescriptions.

Joint Commission "Do Not Use" List– Prohibits "U" and similar abbreviations to prevent dosing errors.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers error prevention strategies, including abbreviation safety.

Key References: