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E2 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

A fundamental concept of the successful use of a Balanced Scorecard is:

Options:

A.

to continually increase the number of performance indicators used to manage the business.

B.

to sometimes use a traffic light system to help prioritise activities in the scorecard.

C.

to see the scorecard as a technique for formulating strategy.

D.

to ensure that the scorecard consists of leading indicators of performance only.

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Questions 5

The role of competitor analysis, according to Wilson and Gilligan is threefold.

 

Which of the following does NOT apply?

Options:

A.

To generate insights into competitors' past, present and future strategies.

B.

To provide in-depth understanding about customer preferences which can aid product development and marketing strategies.

C.

To help management understand their competitive advantages and disadvantages relative to competitors.

D.

To give an informed basis for developing future strategies to sustain or establish advantages over competitors.

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Questions 6

KK manufactures mobile phones and it possesses an inimitable resource in the mobile phone market in which it currently competes.

Which of the following  best describes this type of resource?

Options:

A.

It will provide wide access to a variety of markets

B.

A competitor will see the perceived benefits

C.

A competitor will find it difficult to copy

D.

A competitor could substitute the resource

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Questions 7

FR Company is undertaking analysis of its competitors. One part of its analysis will investigate its supplier whose products satisfy the same customer needs, but are technically quite different. Which of the following levels of competitors does this relate to?

Options:

A.

Generic competitors

B.

Industry competitors

C.

Form competitors

D.

Brand competitors

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Questions 8

With respect to the management of quality on projects, which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The only actions required are to inspect the final deliverables and reject items that do not meet specifications.

B.

A key responsibility of a project manager is to ensure that design specifications are met.

C.

The central theme of project quality is to exceed the expectations of the client by building to the highest standards.

D.

Most project processes produce outputs with no variation in quality characteristics.

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Questions 9

DD organisation is a management consultancy company. Currently, although it has some clients in other countries, the activities of DD are mainly domestic. However the directors are keen to develop the business internationally.

 

The strengths of DD are recognised as it has a well-motivated team of professional consultants, and a very powerful analytical model for developing business solutions.

 

Which of the following best describes how this company can develop its business strategy to gain a competitive advantage?

Options:

A.

Competitive advantage can be gained by having a resource based view that stem from having unique assets and core competencies.

B.

Competitive advantage can be gained by carrying out a PEST analysis.

C.

Competitive advantage can be gained by using the BCG model.

D.

Competitive advantage can be gained from allowing strategies to emerge.

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Questions 10

An organisation manufacturing cosmetics was set up five years ago and has since grown considerably.

 

The organisation did not have clear strategies and as such any approaches emerged. The directors feel a new way to strategy setting would be more appropriate; one that could offer a more thorough, intended, deliberate approach.

 

Which of the following is a suitable approach to developing strategy for this organisation?

Options:

A.

Rational Strategy

B.

Resource based strategy

C.

Emergent strategy

D.

Shareholder strategy

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Questions 11

Which of the models below identifies triggers for change from the macro environment?

Options:

A.

Michael Porter's Five Forces

B.

Michael Porter's Diamond

C.

LoNGPEST

D.

Ansoff's Growth Matrix

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Questions 12

Negotiation is an important skill for managers and their relationships with subordinates, stakeholders and suppliers. The negotiation process can be divided into four disctinct stages.

Place the following stages in the correct order:

Options:

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Questions 13

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of a good audit system?

Options:

A.

Provides a form of internal control.

B.

Provides a basis for improving the finance function's presentation of a company's financial records.

C.

Provides a basis for improving the finance function's efficiency and effectiveness in the information it presents to management.

D.

Provides a basis for streamlining the finance function.

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Questions 14

There are many implications for an organisation when using PRINCE 2 for managing projects. Which of the following statements are correct?

Options:

A.

The Project Manager can make decisions independently without the approval of the board

B.

The Project Manager must follow a restricted step by step procedure

C.

All six processes and the many sub processes must be followed

D.

Project staff must operate under a strictly managed and controlled regime

E.

All actions must be within the bounds of agreed project objectives and scope

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Questions 15

The Project Management Institute's 5 project management process areas identifies that five stages apply in project management. Place the relevant stage against the appropriate description.

Options:

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Questions 16

The Board of organisation Y has authorised an upgrade to its computerised finance system.

 

The Finance Director, X, has been tasked with managing this project.  X has been requested to consult with stakeholders, in order that a Project Initiation Document (PID) may be produced.

 

What are the TWO main uses of a PID?

Options:

A.

To ensure that the project is broken down into work packages and a Work Breakdown Structure be produced.

B.

To produce a risk assessment of both internal and external risks that are likely to effect the project, and alternative actions to reduce the risks.

C.

To ensure that the project has a complete sound basis before any major commitment to the project.

D.

To act as a base document against which the project can be managed for progress, change management issues, and ongoing viability issues.

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Questions 17

Under UK Law it is an employer's duty to protect the health, safety and welfare of the employees and other people who may be affected by their business. In what manner must employers act?

 

Select the THREE that apply.

Options:

A.

Carry out risk assessments to address all risks that might cause harm in the workplace.

B.

Provide information in the workplace about how employees and others are protected and instruct them how they can deal with the risks.

C.

It is the duty of all employees to take reasonable care for the health and safety of themselves and of other persons who may be affected by their acts and omissions at work.

D.

The employee has a duty to cooperate with his/her employer so far as is necessary to enable health and safety requirements to be performed and complied with.

E.

Display Health and Safety Regulations in a prominent position in every workplace or provide each worker with a copy.

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Questions 18

Projects carried out using the PRINCE2 methodology are always set out in a series of distinct and sequential stages. Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a planned break between stages?

Options:

A.

The project team is required to break and regroup ready for the next package of work.

B.

The project board can make a decision as to whether the project business case is still viable.

C.

The progress of the project can be reviewed to ensure this justifies the continuation of the project.

D.

Risks to the project can be reassessed before further commitments of money or resources. 

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Questions 19

The advantages of embedding the finance function within the business unit include which THREE of the following?

Options:

A.

It allows the accountant to provide information specific to a particular business unit with greater efficiency.

B.

It prevents duplication of effort across the organisation.

C.

It enables strong relationships to be developed between the accountant and the rest of the management team within a particular business unit.

D.

It means that the accountant is able to develop best practice that can be of benefit to the whole company.

E.

It allows the accountant to build up detailed local knowledge and understanding of the business unit.

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Questions 20

FF Ltd was established three years ago. Since then the company, which provides online financial advice, has experienced rapid growth and the management team has not really had the time to put management systems and procedures into place.

 

The organisation has asked you to look at the way in which the company deals with its disciplinary problems and procedures.

 

Choose from the following ALL that apply as recommended guidelines for drawing up a disciplinary procedure:

Options:

A.

Procedures should be written down to avoid misunderstandings.

B.

Staff should be provided with a copy of the procedures and relevant sections of the policy made clear.

C.

Discipline is all about punishment and it should state this in the policy document.

D.

Disciplinary procedures should consist of having informal chats outside of the organisation.

E.

Steps should be detailed to investigate complaints that might lead to legal action.

F.

Appeals procedures should be given as and when required as a last resort.

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Questions 21

An organisation undertakes a planned strategy and it is currently at the stage of completing a strategic analysis.

It has defined what it is seeking to achieve, identified the strengths and weaknesses of the company and has undertaken a corporate appraisal.

What stage of its strategic analysis has the organisation failed to carry out?

Options:

A.

An external analysis of the business's environment

B.

Identification of strategic options

C.

Identification of functional policies

D.

Making strategic choices

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Questions 22

Based on the Tuckman model of team development, identify the stage when team relationships should start to harmonise and the team agrees on normal work patterns and the best way to tackle the work ahead of them. Job roles and relationships within the team are also agreed.

Options:

A.

Norming

B.

Storming

C.

Forming

D.

Performing

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Questions 23

What are the disadvantages of a divisional organisational structure? Select ALL that apply.

Options:

A.

Knowledge may not be shored between different divisions

B.

Divisions may end up competing with each other

C.

Potential duplication of activities may occur

D.

There may be a lack of specialisation on a particular product

E.

It con be difficult to undertake expansion in the form of new divisions

F.

It is difficult to develop managers due to a lack of responsibility in their roles

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Questions 24

X is a major energy company and has discovered substantial onshore shale gas reserves in a rural part of the country. With new "fracking" technology, underground gas production could be profitable, provide jobs for local people and boost the local economy. This would require the purchase of large areas of land, without which the projects could not proceed.

 

Although local landowners were generally pleased to sell land to X at high prices, the reactions of local residents were less favourable as they were very concerned about the environmental impact.

 

Although their powers were limited, their influence on local councils was more significant. Every new fracking site was subject to strict planning controls and local councils controlled this process.

 

Using Mendelow's stakeholder management theory, which stakeholder group should be categorised as high interest/low power - with a strategy of "keep informed" (unless their power and influence start to increase)?

Options:

A.

Local residents

B.

Local landowners

C.

Local Councils

D.

Directors of X

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Questions 25

According to Mintzberg, a manager must exhibit which of the following skills in order to create the conditions for new ideas to flourish and strategies to emerge?

 

Select ALL that apply.

Options:

A.

Manage stability

B.

Detect discontinuity

C.

Keep decisions small

D.

Detect conflict

E.

Manage patterns

F.

Reconcile change and continuity

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Questions 26

According to Kotter's process of change, what is the purpose of building a guiding coalition?

Options:

A.

To give the change direction and focus.

B.

To ensure all key stakeholders are brought into the process.

C.

To communicate the long-term vision and strategy.

D.

To enable actions by removing barriers.

E.

To cement the change in the culture of the organisation.

F.

To generate short-term wins.

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Questions 27

Which of the following is NOT designed to deal with risk and uncertainty when planning for time?

Options:

A.

Project evaluation and review

B.

Resource histogram

C.

Buffering

D.

Scenario Planning

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Questions 28

Objectives generally possess characteristics which set them apart from mission statements. Which THREE of the following apply?

Options:

A.

Objectives are targets to be achieved.

B.

Objectives are descriptions of what the company provides.

C.

Objectives involve the time-frames within which targets are to be achieved.

D.

Objectives are concerned with the basic purposes of organisations.

E.

Objectives provide precise formulations of the attributes sought.

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Questions 29

According to Belbin, winning teams display which THREE of the following characteristics?

Options:

A.

A good range of mental ability spread across the team

B.

Individuals with no clearly defined role profile

C.

A match between team roles and personal attributes

D.

Abiltiy to compensate for role imbalances

E.

Individual members who are each able to fulfill all of Belbin's roles

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Questions 30

The Thomas-Kilmann model suggests five conflict handling strategies. Which THREE of the following are part of the model?

Options:

A.

Competing: both parties seek to maximise their own interests and goals thus creating winners and losers. 

B.

Conflict reduction: involves building on areas of agreement and changing attitudes and perceptions by use of compromises and concessions.

C.

Collaborating: involves a 'win-win' strategy which is achieved through joint confrontation of the problem.

D.

Conflict suppression: involves threatened authority or force or smoothing over the conflict by de-emphasing the seriousness of the situation.

E.

Accommodation: involves a strategy in which one party puts the other party's interest first even when it is to its own disadvantage.

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Questions 31

A company displaying creativity in its workforce, and an ability to react to the dynamic environment in which it operates, is most likely to avoid which of the approaches to strategy formulation listed below?

Options:

A.

Emergent

B.

Freewheeling opportunism

C.

Rational

D.

Incremental

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Questions 32

University Z is about to take on a major project of changing from traditional written examinations to computer-based objective test questons.

 

Y is the systems manager at the university and has been appointed as the Project Manager. The university is very traditional in its management structure, whereby functional specialists manage each department.  However, for this project, Y considers that a matrix structure would be required. The Vice Chancellor is not convinced that a matrix structure would be appropriate.

 

There are a number of advantages of a matrix structure. Which of the following should Y use in his argument to convince the Vice Chancellor that a matrix structure is appropriate?

 

Select ALL that apply. 

Options:

A.

Responsibilities are clearly identified

B.

Decision making is improved

C.

Lateral communications are improved

D.

Reporting lines are clearly established

E.

Managers are exposed to organisation-wide problems

F.

Specialist are able to appraise other disciplines

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Questions 33

X Company's Board of Directors uses its expertise to develop future strategies. The Board defines objectives that need to be achieved and then, through formal proactive planning and careful analysis, it selects the most appropriate means to achieve them.

 

Which method of strategy formulation is the Board using?

Options:

A.

Emergent

B.

Rational

C.

Opportunism

D.

Resource-based

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Questions 34

A Company achieves its competitive advantage by adopting a positioning view to strategy setting.

 

Which TWO of the technical models below are most suited to this approach?

Options:

A.

Michael Porter's Value Chain.

B.

PESTEL analysis.

C.

Michael Porter's Five Forces model.

D.

Resource Audit.

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Questions 35

An employee of a company has been asked to explain the difference between a Grievance and Disciplinary Action. The employee knows the definitions of both and, whilst they have two examples of actions which would result in Disciplinary Action, they can only think of one circumstance which may result in a Grievance, and this is Discrimination.

 

Which of the following could the employee use as an additional example of a Grievance? 

Options:

A.

The employee is regularly absent.

B.

The employee feels that they have not been considered for promotion because of their age.

C.

The employee entered a restricted area.

D.

The employee feels that they have been given an unfair appraisal.

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Questions 36

Which of the following are classed as part of the move stage of Lewin's model of change?

Select ALL that apply.

Options:

A.

Make sure the process is well managed and co-ordinated

B.

Ensure details of the changes occurring are communicated effectively

C.

Make sure everyone is given the necessary skills

D.

Ask people what their problems are and how they feel the change should proceed

E.

Focus on the reasons for change so people understand and accept it

F.

Deal with the issues of individuals to overcome personal concerns and objections

G.

Develop rewards for indhoduals following the new approaches after the changes

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Questions 37

Setting a mission is the first stage of the rational approach to strategy setting. According to David, which THREE of the following are useful areas to include in an organisation's mission statement?

Options:

A.

Customers

B.

Shareholders

C.

Markets

D.

Philosophy

E.

Suppliers

F.

Government

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Questions 38

Which THREE of the following would be considered as reasonable expectations of the mentoring process, for the mentee?

Options:

A.

Career enhancement

B.

Solving all problems

C.

Support with new challenges

D.

Discipline would be dispensed if they make a mistake

E.

Personal development

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Questions 39

Kotter and Schlesinger devised a theoretical framework which set out six inter-related approaches to deal with resistance to organisational change.

 

One approach involves management taking a simplistic and authoritarian approach by instructing staff to comply with changes. This compulsory method is derived from the formal authority that senior management possesses. Senior managers often have the right to do this based on employment laws and regulations.

 

Select this type of approach as identified by Kotter and Schlesinger.

Options:

A.

Power/coercion

B.

Participation

C.

Education and communication

D.

Manipulation and co-optation

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Questions 40

Which of the following statements does NOT help characterise Quinn's notion of logical incrementalism?

Options:

A.

The alternative to having a long-term strategic plan is not having a plan at all, or having a series of short-term plans as a replacement.

B.

Generally managers know where they want to go and initially work out a few integrating principles that help guide the company's overall actions.

C.

Strategy is a step by step learning process which proceeds from early generalities toward later specifics, clarifying the strategy as events permit and dictate.

D.

Managers consciously keep their decisions small and flexible. In the early stages they avoid precise statements that might impair their flexibility to seize new opportunities.

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Questions 41

While initiating a project to relocate to a larger site, a company looked at how the project proposal fits with the current set up of the business. The premises are only 20 miles away and it is feasible that the current staff would travel to the new factory to work.

 

As part of the feasibility considerations, this represents which type of feasibility?

Options:

A.

Technical

B.

Social

C.

Environmental

D.

Economic

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Questions 42

Kumari is about to start her new roie in the secretarial function of a law firm.

Which of the following is likely to be key part of her job?

Options:

A.

Ensuring legal duties are undertaken correctly at board level

B.

Controlling the provision of internal information

C.

Controlling the processing of transactions

D.

Ensuring internal processes are well controlled, efficient and effective

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Questions 43

According to Kurt Lewin, which of the following leadership styles was thought to result in the highest level of productivity and satisfaction?

Options:

A.

Authoritarian

B.

Laissez - faire

C.

Democratic

D.

Benevolent Authoritative

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Questions 44

Many companies use Critical Path Analysis (CPA) to manage projects.

 

Which TWO of the options below could be identified from a CPA diagram? 

Options:

A.

The activities which need to be completed before the next activity can start.

B.

The resource usage variance for each activity.

C.

The activities which can't overrun without delaying the whole project.

D.

The probable time for each activity.

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Questions 45

When comparing a resource based approach with a positioning based approach, which of the following are statements are true about the positioning based approach?

Select ALL that apply.

Options:

A.

A positioning based approach is flexible and easy to adapt.

B.

A positioning based approach requires innovation to succeed.

C.

A positioning based approach leads to change, which can be difficult to manage.

D.

A positioning based approach offers consistency and stability based on resources and competencies.

E.

A positioning based approach can provide a product or service better than competitors.

F.

A positioning based approach is dangerous where the environment significantly changes.

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Questions 46

Porter's Value Chain model is divided into two main categories. From the choices below identify the TWO categories:

Options:

A.

Operational activities

B.

Marketing and Sales activities

C.

Primary Activities

D.

Procurement Activities

E.

Support Activities

F.

Outbound logistics

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Questions 47

The B Car Company is considering a joint venture with a company in Country X. It is undertaking a political risk analysis at both a micro and macro level. Which of the following is a micro level risk?

Options:

A.

Threat of civil war in Country X

B.

Government expropriation of private company assets wtthout compensation

C.

Government regulation of the Car Industry in Country X

D.

Political boycott of goods from Country X by several other countries

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Questions 48

PRINCE2 clearly defines a set of roles for every active participant on a project. What is the role described below?

 

This is the person ultimately responsible for the business success of the entire project. They must ensure the project gives value for money and balance the demands of business user and supplier.

 

This person is also the ultimate decision-maker in the project. For this reason they are appointed before the project starts. As the person is directly responsible for the project business case, it is expected that in most instances they are appointed from the customer side of the organisation.

Options:

A.

Team Manager

B.

Executive

C.

Senior User

D.

Project Manager

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Questions 49

Which of the following statements relate to the 'hard Ss' in Mckinsy's model?

Select ALL that apply.

Options:

A.

The long-term direction of an organisation

B.

The everyday procedures that an organisation has in place to govern its activity.

C.

The operating approach of an organisation's management.

D.

An organisation's employees and how they are developed, trained and motivated.

E.

An organisation's particular capabilities and competencies.

F.

The values and beliefs of an organisation, including those expressed in the mission statement.

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Questions 50

WBS organisation has recruited a new project manager to manage the implementation of a new accounting package for its UK division.

 

The previous project manager created a hostile environment for the team involved in developing the new system.

 

How could the new project manager foster a more motivated team environment?

Options:

A.

By taking control of all meetings and inform the team only when a major issue needs dealing with.

B.

By recruiting a new team from outside the organisation that may be more motivated from the start.

C.

By adopting an autocratic management style that does not allow participation of the team.

D.

By adopting a participative style of management, recruiting a team with the correct skills, holding regular meetings and managing any conflict.

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Questions 51

A project manager is calculating the budget cost of a single project task called "Server Configuration".

 

This task is estimated to last 8 weeks and requires the full-time services of two software consultants, both for the entire duration of the task.

One consultant commands an inclusive rate of $400/day and the other $40/hour based on an eight hour day. Fixed hardware costs of $12,000 have also been estimated for the task.

 

Calculate the total budget cost for the task (ignoring any other resources or costs) - assuming a five day working week.

 

Give your answer as a whole number.

 

The total cost is $    .

Options:

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Questions 52

For complex projects, Gantt charts have limitations.

Which THREE of the following apply?

Options:

A.

They do not reveal team problems due to unexpected delays

B.

They do not help in the coordination of resources and networking requirements

C.

They do not show the degree of completion for each phase of the project

D.

They do not provide objective activity times

E.

They do not allow the calculation of precise completion times

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Questions 53

Barney (1991) identified four criteria necessary for a resource to be classed as unique and thus give competitive advantage. One of these is that it shouldn't be substitutable and another is that it should be rare.

 

Which TWO of the options below make up the list of four?

Options:

A.

Valuable

B.

Imperfectly Imitable

C.

Perfectly Imitable

D.

Costly to obtain

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Questions 54

Because of the severity of actions of the employer an employee takes the decision to resign. This could be classed as which of the following?

Options:

A.

Calculative dismissal

B.

Wrongful dismissal

C.

Redundancy

D.

Constructive dismissal

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Questions 55

Which of the following statements are not true based on Stalk, Evans and Schulman's principles of capability-based competition?

Select ALL that apply.

Options:

A.

Generating new ideas are core to business success.

B.

It is the process that is important and not the product or market.

C.

The business processes create value.

D.

It is important to invest in skills and processes, not business functions.

E.

The CEO leads the development of capabilities.

F.

Capability is developed from internal and external factors.

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Questions 56

The purpose of PEST analysis is described by which of the following?

Options:

A.

To examine the competitive forces at work in the industry.

B.

To determine the strengths and weaknesses of the organisation.

C.

To assess the power of the internal stakeholders.

D.

To assess the threats and opportunities posed by the wider environmental forces.

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Questions 57

Which type of culture, according to Charles Handy, is identified by an individual's tasks being clearly defined and their power coming from their position in the hierarchy? 

Options:

A.

Power Culture

B.

Task Culture

C.

Role Culture

D.

Person Culture

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Questions 58

According to the Project Management Body of Knowledge as outlined by the Project Management Institute, there are nine key areas of project management. Which of the following are areas identified by the PMI?

Select ALL that apply.

Options:

A.

Integration

B.

Resource Management

C.

Procurement

D.

Risk

E.

Quality

F.

Initiation

G.

Monitoring

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Questions 59

Which of the following best describes generic competitors?

Options:

A.

Competitors which compete for the same income as the company.

B.

Competitors which compete with products which, although technically quite different, satisfy the same needs.

C.

Competitors which have similar goods but not necessarily the same size or structure organisation.

D.

Competitors which have similar size and structure and offer similar products to the same customers. 

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Questions 60

U is a retail chain of fashion outlets. It has invested in a new logistics system to control the movement of stock between its warehouses and high street retail outlets.

 

The project to develop and install the new system was significantly over budget and very late. Now, only three months after the new system has been installed, it is apparent that the project has not delivered its objectives. Many retail managers are complaining that they are not receiving the correct stock to sell. A meeting between the project team and project sponsor ended with everyone blaming each other.

 

Which of the following statements show how the use of PRINCE2 might have reduced the problems encountered?

 

Select ALL that apply.

Options:

A.

A focus on the business case of the project.

B.

An organisation structure setting out clear roles.

C.

An emphasis on quality assurance and testing.

D.

Little need for PRINCE2 training by participants.

E.

An emphasis on finishing as soon as possible.

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Questions 61

An experienced IT project manager provides the following advice about planning a new project:

 

"The project should start with a Requirements Analysis which should take 10 days.  When this is finished Detailed Design (10 days) and Interface studies (15 days) can start at the same time. As soon as they are both complete Prototyping can start (30 days).

 

Prototyping is the predecessor of both Implementation (10 days) and Data Conversion (20 days).

 

Go-Live is the final activity (5 days) and follows when Implementation and Data Conversion are both complete."

 

Using critical path analysis which statements are correct.

 

Select ALL that apply.

Options:

A.

The planned duration of the project is 80 days.

B.

The critical path runs through five activities.

C.

Data Conversion is non-critical and has float of 25 days.

D.

There are four non-critical activities.

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Questions 62

JJ is the project manager implementing a new software system in the customer services department of a large manufacturing organisation.

 

As part of the new ways of working, JJ is introducing changes to the working hours of the customer services team.

 

The customer services team is not happy with the changes and is complaining that it does not report to JJ, so why should it have to adapt its working hours.

 

This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Triggers for change

B.

Resistance to change

C.

Tolerance of change

D.

Acceptance of change

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Questions 63

Which TWO of the planning tools listed below show the minimum completion time of a project?

Options:

A.

Gantt Charts

B.

Resource Histograms

C.

Network Diagrams

D.

Milestones

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Exam Code: E2
Exam Name: Project and Relationship Management
Last Update: Nov 13, 2024
Questions: 210
$99.6  $249
$90  $225
$79.6  $199
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