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1z0-342 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Your financial implementation client lead needs assistance on understanding the Detail Method of Intercompany settlements. You explain that the Detail Method uses _______to track Intercompany settlements and the company associated with the first journal entry line acts as the _________ for the transaction.

Options:

A.

Subsidiaries, detail company

B.

Subledger, hub company

C.

Subledgers, consolidation company

D.

Subledgers, detail company

E.

Subsidiaries, hub company

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Questions 5

Every financial transaction, regardless of activity or source, flows to _____.

Options:

A.

several General Ledger files, depending on its origin

B.

the General Ledger file via a Common Foundation file

C.

one common General Ledger file

D.

an Excel spreadsheet

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Questions 6

You can enter journal entries that automatically reverse in the following accounting period. Which two possible G/L dates could the system assign to the reversing entry?

Options:

A.

The last day of the current accounting period

B.

The last day of the first week of the next accounting period

C.

The last day of the next accounting period

D.

The 15th day of the next accounting period

E.

The first day of the next accounting period

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Questions 7

What is the advantage of Speed Invoice Entry over standard invoice entry?

Options:

A.

There is no advantage.

B.

Standard Invoice Entry captures more information than Speed Invoice Entry

C.

Although Speed Invoice Entry captures less information than Standard Invoice Entry, it is quicker when entering large numbers of invoices

D.

Speed Invoice Entry is slower than Standard Invoice Entry

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Questions 8

Which are true statements about Business Units? (select 2)

Options:

A.

It is the highest level of the reporting structure

B.

Each Business Unit can be assigned to a single company within the organizational structure

C.

Each Business Unit can be assigned to multiple companies within the organizational structure

D.

Lowest organizational level where all revenues, expenses, assets, liabilities, and equities are recorded

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Questions 9

Which are types of Procurement? (select 3)

Options:

A.

Farming

B.

General Accounting

C.

Subcontracting

D.

Non-Stock

E.

Stock

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Questions 10

You have a clearing account that is out of balance and you elect to use the Debit/Credit Match program to assist in the reconciliation. Which four steps are required?

Options:

A.

Running the Bank Journal Statement Process.

B.

Refreshing account information in the Account Ledger Reconciliation table.

C.

Reconciling void payments and receipts.

D.

Unreconciling transactions when needed.

E.

Manually Reconciling transactions.

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Questions 11

When the business unit, job or project is flagged as adjustment only, the following is true:

Options:

A.

You are not allowed to post transactions to this business unit.

B.

You can post only specific document types to this business unit.

C.

You have to specify a subledger in a transaction for this business unit.

D.

You are allowed to post budget transaction only to this business unit

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Questions 12

What should you do to change the method of allocation for an existing recurring journal entry from amount to percent?

Options:

A.

Change the recurring frequency of the allocation journal.

B.

Change the method on the remaining number of recurring journals.

C.

Delete the recurring journal and add a new one.

D.

Create different versions of the Recurring JE Compute & Print program.

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Questions 13

Your customer wants to Implement Advance Variable Numerator Allocations. What specifications should you set up to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

Source; Recurring frequency; Offset

B.

Source; Basis; Destination; Offset

C.

Source; Destination; Offset

D.

From BU; To BU, Offset account

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Questions 14

Your client has posted a fixed asset journal entry to the G/L but is getting errors when trying to post the entry to fixed assets.

Which two statements correctly indicate reasons for the entry not getting posted?

Options:

A.

The entry has a fixed asset post code of P.

B.

The entry has a hold code of blank,

C.

The entry has a GL post code of P.

D.

The entry contains accounts within the FX range of AAIs.

E.

The entry does not contain an asset number.

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Questions 15

Which two statements are true regarding One View Financial Statement Security?

Options:

A.

Generated financial statements are accessible by only the user who generated them.

B.

The category codes provided in the OVFS feature can be used for additional security for specific records in the feature.

C.

Components such as applications and database tables are not accessible by all users.

D.

Security cannot be set up to specifically exclude users or roles from the OVFS components.

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Questions 16

What three AAIs can be set up for revenue recognition?

Options:

A.

4225 DMAAI

B.

RT AAI

C.

RP AAI

D.

RQ AAI

E.

4243 DMAAI

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Questions 17

Which statement is correct about the Order-to-Cash process?

Options:

A.

The Sales Update process completes the Order-to-Cash process.

B.

The Sales Update process does not create A/R invoices.

C.

The Sales Update process creates the Sale Orders.

D.

The Sales Update process creates invoices In the A/R system.

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Questions 18

Which Automatic Accounting Instruction (AAI) hierarchy determines the GL Bank Account when you add a new voucher?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 19

Which field should you set up In the Supplier Master to prevent new vouchers from being entered for this vendor?

Options:

A.

Hold Voucher

B.

Credit Message

C.

Hold Order Code

D.

Payment Creation

E.

Hold Payment

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Questions 20

Your client needs assistance in setting up allocations for the company. Which method of allocation allows you to redistribute amounts from one or more business units to one or more business units with a common category code?

Options:

A.

Recurring Journal Entry

B.

Variable Model

C.

Model Journal Entry

D.

Variable Numerator

E.

Indexed

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Questions 21

Which three of the following pieces of information can be captured in the Address Book?

Options:

A.

Outstanding amount for customers

B.

Default Document Type

C.

A/R A/P Netting Default

D.

Tax ID

E.

Subledger Inactive Code

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Questions 22

Information can be exported from a grid to which types of files? (select 3)

Options:

A.

Excel spreadsheet

B.

Word document

C.

Comma Separated Value (CSV) file

D.

Exporting from the grid is not allowed

E.

Acrobat file

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Questions 23

Your client has asked that you set up the supplier payment terms. Assume they are using Standard Voucher Entry. What happens to the payment terms field in the header if payment terms are specified in the grid?

Options:

A.

A soft error occurs.

B.

The system ignores the value entered in the payment terms field in the grid and continues to use the value in the header.

C.

The system uses the payment terms found on the supplier master record.

D.

The payment terms field in the header is disabled and the system uses the value entered in the grid.

E.

Nothing, there are no payment terms field in the grid.

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Questions 24

Which three statements are TRUE about Visual Assists?

Options:

A.

A Visual Assist Is available for all entry fields in JDE.

B.

A Visual Assist will automatically populate the entry field with the correct value.

C.

A Visual Assist will guide the user in selecting a valid value for an entry field.

D.

A Visual Assist is not always available for all entry fields In JDE.

E.

A Visual Assist will reduce the errors made during data entry.

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Questions 25

When you know a draft is paid, the draft is closed. On a draft, what does the pay status # indicate?

Options:

A.

The draft has been accepted.

B.

The draft is on hold.

C.

The draft has been closed.

D.

The draft has been selected for payment.

E.

The draft is approved.

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Questions 26

Which is becomes part of the header information when an invoice is entered through standard invoice entry?

Options:

A.

Employee Number

B.

Supplier Number

C.

Invoice Date

D.

Payment Term

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Questions 27

Which of the following is NOT an element of Asset Depreciation?

Options:

A.

Net Book Value

B.

Time Value of money

C.

Salvage value of money

D.

Time

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Questions 28

Your client is required to produce a trial balance that compares 'Actual" and "Budgets". You recommend they use the Trial Balance Ledger Comparison application. How is the 'Thru" date derived on this Find/Browse form?

Options:

A.

The "Thru" date is driven by the Financial Reporting Period in the General Accounting Constant.

B.

The user must enter the "Thru" date.

C.

The "Thru" date is driven by the Financial Reporting Period in the Company Constant.

D.

The "Thru" date is driven by the General Accounting Current Period in the Company Constant.

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Questions 29

You are m a System Integration meeting and the client is concerned about the different type of records that are kept In the Business Unit Master table (F0006). Which types of records are NOT kept in the Business Unit Master table?

Options:

A.

Property Master table for Property Management

B.

3ob Master table for Job Cost

C.

Property Master table for Energy Chemical systems

D.

Master table for financial reporting

E.

Asset Master table for Fixed Assets

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Questions 30

Your client would like to know if they should set up additional customer records or use Line of Business processing.

Why would you want to activate Line of Business processing?

Options:

A.

To set up multiple sets SIC values for the customer.

B.

To use a different default business unit for invoice entry.

C.

To establish multiple Address Book records.

D.

To establish a credit limit hierarchy by company.

E.

To set up multiple sets of default information for the customer by company.

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Questions 31

The Supplier Analysis report shows Year to Date information that is inaccurate. Why is this so?

Options:

A.

The AP Annual Close has not been processed.

B.

Your Data Selection in the Supplier Master report is incorrect.

C.

The aging accounts are not set up in the A/P Constants.

D.

The Beginning Year A/P and A/P period fields have not been updated In the Company Numbers and Names.

E.

The Supplier/Customer Totals by G/L Accounts report has not been run.

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Questions 32

Which are true statements about the Parent Company? (select 3)

Options:

A.

It is the highest level of the reporting structure

B.

The Fiscal Year Pattern is defined at the Parent Company level

C.

A Balance Sheet can be produced at the Parent Company level

D.

A Balance Sheet can NOT be produced at the Parent Company level

E.

It is the lowest level of the reporting structure

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Questions 33

Your client wants to delete several fixed asset records created in error and feel they have taken the necessary steps to remove any existing transactions from the asset records.

Which three options offer reasons for your client to delete the asset records?

Options:

A.

Transactions had been posted to the fixed assets Asset Account Balances File table (F1202).

Adjusting entries were then created and posted to the Asset Account Balances File table (F1202) making balance amounts zero for the selected assets.

B.

Transactions that have been posted to the Account Balances table (F0902) are voided for the selected assets.

C.

Transactions that have not been posted to the Account Balances table (F0902) are deleted for the selected assets.

D.

Assets had associated amounts In Beginning Balance Setup. Asset amounts were then deleted in Beginning Balance Setup for the selected assets.

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Questions 34

To increase efficiency, your client almost exclusively creates Journal entries using Model JEs, Importing JEs, and copying existing JEs. An audit revealed they have several records with zero amounts and units In their Account Ledger (F09ii) table.

Which action will help address your client's issue?

Options:

A.

After populating the Journal entry form using any method, click the Form Exit and select Features. Then select the check box to not create journal entry line items with zero amount and no units.

B.

Set the processing option in the General Ledger Post program (R09801) to not create journal entry line items with zero amount and no units.

C.

The system is not designed to determine which Journal Entry lines to include or exclude. Your client must delete zero amount and no unit lines prior to saving journal entries to prevent them from populating the Account Ledger (F0911) table.

D.

Set the processing option in the Journal Entry MBF program (P0900049) to not create journal entry line items with zero amount and no units.

E.

Set the processing option in the Journal Entry program (P0911) to not create journal entry line items with zero amount and no units.

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Questions 35

From which three tables does the One View Customer Receipt/Draft Inquiry application (P03B720) combine information?

Options:

A.

Customer Receipt Detail table (F03B14), Customer Receipt Header table (F03B13), and Account Master table (F0901)

B.

Customer Receipt Detail table (F03B14), Customer Receipt Header table (F03B13), and Customer Master table (F03012)

C.

Customer Receipt Detail table (F03B14), Customer Receipt Header table (F03B13), and Business Unit Master (F0006)

D.

Customer Receipt Detail table (F03B14), Customer Receipt Header table (F03B13), and Customer Ledger table (F03B11)

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Questions 36

What three conditions must exist In order for one to use the Composite Application Framework?

Options:

A.

You should have access to the content in the layout.

B.

You should have access to Object Management Workbench (OMW).

C.

You should have the permission to publish content.

D.

You should be enabled to view the layout of the Composite Application Framework.

E.

Your Enterprise One preferences should have the Show Layout option selected.

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Questions 37

Identify three differences between mobile and standard applications.

Options:

A.

Using the Invoice Batch Approvals mobile applications, you can review batches of Invoice entries

and the transaction details in each invoice. You cannot revise existing invoice details or add invoices to a batch.

B.

Using the Invoice Batch Approvals mobile applications, you do not have visibility to review or

edit text and image attachments associated with Invoice entries.

C.

The Invoice Batch Approvals mobile applications are set up to process and display only those

invoice batches that are in pending status.

D.

Using the Invoice Batch Approvals mobile applications, you can review text and Image

attachments associated with invoice entries. You cannot revise existing attachments or add new attachments.

E.

The Invoice Batch Approvals mobile applications are set up to process and display only those Invoice batches that are In approved status.

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Questions 38

At what stage should you use the voucher match automation process to match partial receipts?

Options:

A.

You cannot match to partial receipts using the voucher match automation process.

B.

The Supplier Master record is flagged to allow matching of invoices to partial receipts, automation rule 01 is being used and Suggest Mode is flagged on in the Supplier Master record.

C.

The Supplier Master record is flagged to allow matching of invoices to partial receipts, and automation rule 01 is being used.

D.

The Supplier Master record Is flagged to allow matching of Invoices to partial receipts, automation rule 02 is being used, and Suggest Mode is flagged on in the Supplier Master record.

E.

The Supplier Master record is flagged to allow matching of invoices to partial receipts, and automation rule 02 is being used.

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Questions 39

Your client submitted the Annual Close application to close their fiscal year.

When you close a fiscal year, which AAI Items does the system use?

Options:

A.

GLG4 retained earnings and GLGxx for all GL accounts

B.

GLG4 retained earnings, GLG6 beginning revenue account, and GLG12 ending profit and loss

C.

GLG4 retained earnings, GLG12 ending profit and loss, and GLG7 year-end close account

D.

GLG4 retained earnings and FSxx Interim subtotals

E.

GLG4 retained earnings, GLG12 ending profit and loss, and the ICCC intercompany account

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Questions 40

Your client ran the A/R to Account Balance by Account ID (R03B707) Integrity report, which compares updated amounts in the F0902 table to posted amounts in different transaction tables. However, the client is unsure about which tables are involved.

Which four tables will you explain to your client are being compared to the F0902 table?

Options:

A.

F03B15

B.

F03B20

C.

F03B21

D.

F03B13

E.

F03B11

F.

F03B112

G.

F03B14

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Questions 41

Your client posted some Invoice batches with taxes but failed to set up the General Ledger Post Report program (R09801) to update the tax table.

Which two solutions should you provide?

Options:

A.

To update tax amounts, simply use the Speed Status Change program (P03B114) and revise transaction amount information.

B.

Manually enter information into the Tax Table.

C.

Revise the posted batch by entering tax information as an additional pay item using the tax-only explanation codes (ST, UT, VT, BT, or CT), or enter a new tax-only transaction and post the batch.

D.

After the R09801 processing options are updated, change the batches to Approved and post the batches again to update the tax table.

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Questions 42

Which three steps are performed in the Match Tape File To Recon File program (R09510) in order to reconcile the transactions?

Options:

A.

marking as reconciled all transactions with matching document numbers and amounts, and cleared

dates greater than the document date in the F0911R workfile and F09ii table

B.

printing four reports that show the results of the comparison and list any errors that occurred during the automatic reconciliation

C.

converting data from the F095051 flat file to the F09505 workfile

D.

comparing cleared transactions from the bank tape in the F09505 to unreconciled transactions in

the F0911R reconciliation workfile

E.

copying the unreconciled transaction detail for all reconcilable accounts from the F0911 table to the F0911R reconciliation workfile

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Questions 43

How can you prevent automatic write-offs from being created during manual receipt entry?

Options:

A.

Leave the Overpayment and Underpayment Reason Codes processing options blank In the Auto Write Off tab on the Standard Receipts Entry (P03B102) program.

B.

Leave the Apply Invoices processing option blank on the Process tab on the Standard Receipts Entry (P03B102) program.

C.

Set the Invoice Match processing option to 1 in the tab Match Priority on the Standard Receipts Entry (P03B102) program.

D.

Set the Maximum Underpayment Amount and Maximum Overpayment Amount processing options to 0 (zero) In the Manual Write Off tab on the Standard Receipts Entry (P03B102) program.

E.

Set the Maximum Underpayment Amount and Maximum Overpayment Amount fields to 0 (zero) and the Overpayment and Underpayment Reason Codes processing options to blank in the Auto Write Off tab on the Standard Receipts Entry (P03B102) program.

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Questions 44

When you try to reprint a customer's Invoice for finance charges, the Print Invoice (R03B505) PDF displays error message 'No Data Selected".

Which data selection needs to be removed in order for the Print Invoice (R03B505) UBE to reprint this customer's Invoice for finance charges?

Options:

A.

Company Number (F03B11) equal to xxx (where xxx is the Company Number on the invoice)

B.

Open Amount (F03B11) equal to greater than zero

C.

Document Type (F03B11) equal to RF

D.

Address Number (F03B11) equal to xxx (where xxx is the Customer Number Address Book Number on the invoice)

E.

Date- Invoice Printed (F03B11) equal to Null Date

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Questions 45

Which field or fields make up the unique key(s) that link the Receipt Header table (F03B13) to the Receipt Detail (F03BI4) table?

Options:

A.

G/L Date (DGJ), Receipt Number (CKNU) and Company (CO)

B.

Receipt Number (CKNU)

C.

Payment ID (PYID)

D.

Payment ID (PYID) and Receipt Number (CKNU)

E.

Receipt Number (CKNU) and Address Number (AN8)

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Questions 46

Which set of tables does the One View Supplier Ledger Inquiry application (P042022) combine information from?

Options:

A.

Accounts Payable Ledger (f0411), Supplier Master (F0401), and Address Book (F0101)

B.

Accounts Payable Ledger (f0411), Supplier Master (F0401), and Business Unit Master (F0006)

C.

Accounts Payable Ledger (F0411), Supplier Master (F0401), and Account Master (F0901)

D.

Accounts Payable Ledger (F0411), Supplier Master (F0401), and Accounts Payable - Matching Document (F0413)

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Questions 47

When you try to delete an Invoice, the system displays error 0415: "Delete Invalid for this Voucher/Invoice".

What is the reason for this?

Options:

A.

The invoice is linked to a sales order and, therefore, cannot be deleted.

B.

The Invoice is paid and, therefore, cannot be deleted.

C.

The invoice was not posted and, therefore, cannot be deleted.

D.

The Customer is on credit hold and, therefore, cannot be deleted.

E.

The processing options for Invoice Entry Master Business Function (P03B0011) are set to disallow deletion of invoices.

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Questions 48

Your client defined an organization report structure assigning category codes to business units for online consolidations. They have run the Organization Structure Build program in proof mode and the report displays the business units that are dynamically created as a concatenation of category codes. Your client is concerned because they have the processing options set to dynamically create business units using next numbering.

After troubleshooting the problem, what message will you relay to your client?

Options:

A.

The Pseudo Consolidation Company processing option in the Organization Structure Build program was left blank. This processing option points the system to the correct next number by company sequence.

B.

In proof mode, any business units that are dynamically created appear on the report as a concatenation of category codes, regardless of the setting of the BU Creation processing options.

C.

The check box for concatenating category codes for new business units was flagged on in the Organization Structure Definition program (P0050B) for the structure defined by the client. This setting is overriding the processing option in the Organization Structure Build program.

D.

The Sequence fields that define where child business units appear under the parent were left blank when the organization structure was defined. These fields must be defined for the Organization Structure Build program to function as designed.

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Exam Code: 1z0-342
Exam Name: JD Edwards EnterpriseOne Financial Management 9.2 Implementation Essentials
Last Update: Nov 20, 2024
Questions: 160
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