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ISTQB-CTFL Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described9

Options:

A.

Test design specification

B.

Project plan

C.

Requirements specification

D.

Test plan

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Questions 5

Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect?

Options:

A.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1

B.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3

C.

S0->S1->S2~>S3->S4

D.

S0->S1 ->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4

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Questions 6

Given the following requirement:

Requirement ID: 2 8

Requirement Description Additional Entrance Fee

Detailed Description

An additional fee of S3 is charged during the weekend, but

1) Visitors aged under 7 are not charged.

2) Visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive get a 20% discount off the additional fee.

3) Visitors aged greater than 65 get a 50% discount off the additional fee.

Age should be an integer of 0 or above.

Weekend means Friday to Sunday inclusive.

Which of the following statements isNOTcorrect?

Options:

A.

Thursday is a valid input boundary value.

B.

A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age.

C.

$3.01 is a valid output boundary value.

D.

7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

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Questions 7

In Agile teams, testers closely collaborate with all other team members. This close collaboration could be problematic and result in testing-related organizational risks.

Which TWO of the following organization risks could be encountered?

I.Testers lose motivation and fail at their core tasks.

ii.Close interaction with developers causes a loss of the appropriate tester mindset.

iii.Testers are not able to keep pace with incoming changes in time-constrained iterations.

iv.Testers, once they have acquired technical development or business skills, leave the testing team.

Options:

A.

ii and iii

B.

i and iii

C.

i and ii

D.

ii and iv

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Questions 8

Which of the following best describes the way in which statement coverage is measured?

Options:

A.

Measured as the number of decision outcomes executed by the tests, divided by the total number of decision outcomes in the test object.

B.

It is not possible to accurately measure statement coverage.

C.

Measured as the number of statements executed by the tests, divided by the total number of executable statements in the code.

D.

Measured as the number of lines of code executed by the test, divided by the total number of lines of code in the test object.

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Questions 9

Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques?

1.Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the requirements, use cases and user stories

2.Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the software architecture or code

3.Test cases can show deviations from the requirements

4.These test techniques are applicable to both functional and non-functional testing

5.Tests are based on knowledge of developers, users and other stakeholders

Black - Black-box test techniques

White * White-box test techniques

Experience - Experience-based test techniques

Options:

A.

Black -1,3.4 White - 2 Experience - 5

B.

Black - 2, 3 White -1 Experience - 4, 5

C.

Black -1,2 White - 3, 4 Experience - 5

D.

Black - 2, 3 White -1,5 Experience - 4

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Questions 10

When should component integration tests be carried out?

Options:

A.

Integration tests should always be done after system tests

B.

Integration tests should be done at the customer's site, after acceptance tests

C.

Integration tests can be done before or after system tests

D.

Integration tests should always be done before system tests

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Questions 11

What type of testing measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests?

Options:

A.

Acceptance testing

B.

Structural testing

C.

Integration testing

D.

Exploratory testing

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Questions 12

Confirmation testing is performed after:

Options:

A.

a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix

B.

a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible

C.

the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results

D.

a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed

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Questions 13

Which of the following should be included in a test status report?

I. Estimation details

II. Total number of open and closed defects

III Actual effort spent

IV. Defect reports

V. Number of executed, failed, blocked tests

Options:

A.

III.V

B.

II, III

C.

I. II. IV

D.

II, III.V

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Questions 14

In maintenance testing, what is the relationship between impact analysis and regression testing?

Options:

A.

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for only the tests that have detected faults in previous SW release

B.

There is no relationship between impact analysis and regression testing.

C.

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for all program elements which were newly integrated (new functionalities).

D.

The impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed.

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Questions 15

Which of the following is a typical potential risk of using test automation tools?

Options:

A.

Reduced feedback times regarding software quality compared to manual testing.

B.

Reduced test execution limes compared to manual testing.

C.

Reduced repeatability and consistency of tests compared to manual testing

D.

Underestimation of effort required to maintain test scripts.

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Questions 16

Which of the following statements about testing in the context of an agile (iterative-incremental) development model is correct?

Options:

A.

Unit test and acceptance test ate the most important tests to make sure that the system works as expected.

B.

Each iteration of testing has to be completely finished before a new Iteration of development starts.

C.

Regression testing is necessary whenever a new Increment Is added to the existing system. D. Only certain types of non-functional and explorative testing are performed.

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Questions 17

Which of the following is an example of the absence-of-errors fallacy?

Options:

A.

Repeating the same test cases will continue to find new defects, even after dozens of executions

B.

A small number of modules contains the most defects

C.

Since testing found very few defects, the system certainly will be successful

D.

Other than trivial cases, it is not feasible to test all combinations of inputs and preconditions

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Questions 18

Which of the following statements about test reports are TRUE?

I Test reports shall be approved by the test team.

II. Test reports shall give stakeholders information as basis for decisions.

Ill Test reports shall summarize what happened through a period of testing.

IV. Test reports shall be approved by the development team, the test team and the customer

V. Test reports shall include information about remaining risks.

Options:

A.

II, III, V

B.

I, II, IV

C.

I, III, v

D.

II, III, IV

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Questions 19

Which of the following can be considered a VALID exit criterion?

I Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

II. The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report.

III. Accuracy measures, such as code, functionality or risk coverage.

IV Residual risks such as lack of code coverage in certain areas.

Options:

A.

I, III, IV

B.

I, II, III

C.

III, IV

D.

II, III, IV

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Questions 20

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY part of atest plan?

Options:

A.

The budget and schedule for the test project.

B.

A detailed analysis of the defects found and their causes.

C.

A detailed report on the test results after the test project is completed.

D.

A list of test logs from the test execution.

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Questions 21

Which of the following is a key characteristic of informal reviews?

Options:

A.

Kick-off meeting

B.

Low cost

C.

Individual preparation

D.

Metrics analysis

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Questions 22

Which ONE of the following options explains a benefit of independent testing the BEST?

Options:

A.

The testers can be isolated from the development team and thus avoid acquiring the same bias as the developers.

B.

Independent testers may lack information regarding the test object.

C.

Independent testers are likely to recognize different types of failures compared to developers.

D.

Developers may lose a sense of responsibility for the quality of the product they develop.

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Questions 23

A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool. Which of the following is the best option?

Options:

A.

Document incidents on a large board in the lab

B.

Purchase and deploy an incident management tool

C.

Manage the incidents through E-mails and phone calls

D.

Manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet

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Questions 24

Which ONE of the following options corresponds to an activity in the testing process in which testable features are identified?

Options:

A.

Test design

B.

Test analysis

C.

Test implementation

D.

Test execution

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Questions 25

A document descnbes the test procedures that have been derived for the identified test sets Among other things, the order in which the test cases in the corresponding test set are to be executed according to the dependencies described by preconditions and postconditions is specified This document is a typical work product produced as part of:

Options:

A.

Test design.

B.

Test analysis

C.

Test Implementation.

D.

Test monitoring and control

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Questions 26

A class grade application for instructors assigns letter grades based on students' numerical grades.

The letter grades for different numerical grades should be:

Above 89, up to 100 - A

Above 79, up to 89 • B

Above 69, up to 79 • C

Above 59, up to 69 - D

Below 60- F

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the relatively highest equivalence partition coverage?

Options:

A.

0, 58.59,70, 80

B.

74, 79.84,85, 89

C.

79, 89.90,99, 100

D.

69, 79. 80, 89, 90

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Questions 27

Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects

[1]. It may not be possible to generate the expected workloads to run performance tests, due to the poor hardware equipment of the machines (load injectors) that should generate these workloads.

[ii]. A user's session on a web application is not invalidated after a certain period of inactivity (configured by the system administrator) of the user,

[iii]. The test team will not have an adequate requirements specification (since many requirements will still be missing) by the time test design and analysis activities should begin according to the test plan.

[IV]. Following a failure, the system is unable to continue to maintain its pre-failure operation and some data becomes corrupted.

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

[ii] and [IV] are product risks; [i] and [iii] are project risks

B.

[ii]and [iii] are product risks. [I] and [IV] are project risks.

C.

[i], and [iV] are product risks; [ii] and [iii] are project risks

D.

[i], [II] and [iii] are product risks, [IV] is a project risk.

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Questions 28

Which one of the following is a typical entry criteria for testing?

Options:

A.

Planned tests have been executed.

B.

Availability of testable requirements.

C.

The number of unresolved defects is within an agreed limit.

D.

The number of estimated remaining defects is sufficiently low.

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Questions 29

In which of the following cases you wouldNOTexecute maintenance testing?

Options:

A.

Retirement of the software or system

B.

Modifications to a released software or system

C.

Migration of the system data to a replacement system

D.

Update to the Maintainability requirements during the development phase

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Questions 30

You need to test the login page of a web site. The page contains fields for user name and password. Which test design techniques are most appropriate for this case?

Options:

A.

Decision table testing, state transition testing.

B.

Equivalence partitioning, Boundary value analysis.

C.

Exploratory testing, statement coverage.

D.

Decision coverage, fault attack.

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Questions 31

Which of the following best describes the relationship between a test progress report and a test summary report?

Options:

A.

The test report prepared during a test activity may be referred to as a test progress report, while a test report prepared at the end of a test activity may be referred to as a test summary report.

B.

The test report prepared during a test activity may be referred to as a test summary report, while a test report prepared at the end of a test activity may be referred to as a test progress report.

C.

There is no difference between a test progress report and a test summary report.

D.

Both the test progress report and the test summary report should always be generated via an automated tool.

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Questions 32

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes thethird test quadrant (Q3)?

Options:

A.

This test quadrant contains smoke tests and non-functional tests (except usability tests). These tests are often automated.

B.

This test quadrant is business-facing and criticizes the system. It contains exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing.

C.

This test quadrant contains functional tests, examples, user story tests, user experience prototypes, API testing, and simulations. These tests check the acceptance criteria and can be manual or automated.

D.

This test quadrant is technology-facing and supports the team. These tests should be automated and included in the continuous integration (CI) process.

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Questions 33

Consider the following table, which contains information about test cases from the test management system:

Which ONE of the following optionsorganizes the test cases based on the statement coverage strategy, while considering practical constraints?

Options:

A.

{TC 20; TC 30; TC 10; TC 40; TC 50; TC 70; TC 60; TC 80; TC 90}

B.

{TC 10; TC 30; TC 20; TC 60; TC 40; TC 80; TC 90; TC 50; TC 70}

C.

{TC 80; TC 70; TC 50; TC 60; TC 20; TC 30; TC 10; TC 40; TC 90}

D.

{TC 60; TC 80; TC 40; TC 90; TC 50; TC 10; TC 70; TC 30; TC 20}

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Questions 34

Which of the following characterizations applies to a test tool used for the analysis of a developer's code prior to its execution?

Options:

A.

Tool support for test design and implementation.

B.

Tool support for static testing.

C.

Tool support for test execution and logging.

D.

Tool support for performance measurement and dynamic analysis.

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Questions 35

Given the following priorities and dependencies for these test cases:

Which of the following test execution schedules BEST takes into account the priorities and technical and logical dependencies?

Options:

A.

TC1 - TC3 - TC2 - TC4 - TC6 - TC5

B.

TC3 - TC4 - TC2 - TC6 - TC1 - TC5

C.

TC1 - TC3 - TC2 - TC4 - TC5 - TC6

D.

TC2 - TC4 - TC1 - TC3 - TC5 - TC6

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Questions 36

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

In Agile software development, work product documentation tends to be lightweight and manual tests tend to be often unscripted as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques

B.

Sequential development models impose the use of systematic test techniques and do not allow the use of experience-based test techniques

C.

In Agile software development, the first iterations are exclusively dedicated to testing activities, as testing will be used to drive development, which will be performed in the subsequent iterations

D.

Both in Agile software development and in sequential development models, such as the V-model, test levels tend to overlap since they do not usually have defined entry and exit criteria

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Questions 37

Which of the following BEST describes exploratory testing?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing is a suitable test technique which may replace both black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Exploratory testing is a valid and useful black-box test technique since it focuses on test cases related to the architecture and design of a system

C.

Exploratory testing requires both solid specifications and much project time available for test execution

D.

Exploratory testing may be used within defined time periods, during which the tester may follow a test charter as a guide

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Questions 38

Which of the following statements about retrospectives is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Only developers and testers should be involved in retrospectives, as involving people in other roles is very likely to prevent developers and testers from having open and constructive discussions that really help identify process improvements.

B.

Retrospectives can be very effective in identifying process improvements and can also be very efficient and cost-effective especially since, unlike reviews, they do not require any follow-up activities

C.

On Agile projects, well-conducted retrospectives at the end of each iteration can help the team reduce and sometimes even eliminate the need for dairy stand-up meetings.

D.

During retrospectives, in addition to identifying relevant process improvements, participants should also consider how to implement these improvements and retain them based on the context of the project, such as the software development lifecycle.

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Questions 39

Consider the following list of possible benefits of retrospectives (A to D):

Options:

A.

Team bonding and learning

B.

Increased test effectiveness/efficiency

C.

Improved quality of the test basis

D.

Better cooperation between development and testing

... and the list of possible characteristics of retrospectives (1 to 4) that enable achieving these benefits:

The possibility of implementing suggestions for process improvement

The opportunity to raise problems and propose points for improvement

The regular review and optimization of the collaboration between team members

The possibility of addressing and solv

E.

A1 - B4 - C3 - D2

F.

A2 - B1 - C4 - D3

G.

A4 - B3 - C2 - D1

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Questions 40

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the involvement of testers in the software development lifecycle (SDLC)?

Options:

A.

Testers should contribute to all activities in the SDLC and participate in design discussions.

B.

Testers should be involved from the beginning of the SDLC to increase understanding of design decisions and detect defects early.

C.

Testers should only be involved during the testing phase.

D.

Testers' involvement is essential; developers find it difficult to be objective.

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Questions 41

Which ONE of the following activities TYPICALLY belongs to the planning phase of the review process?

Options:

A.

A separate defect report is created for each identified defect so that corrective actions can be tracked.

B.

Each reviewer conducts an individual review to identify anomalies, recommendations, and questions.

C.

The purpose and scope of the review are defined, as well as the work product to be reviewed and the exit criteria.

D.

The reviewers analyze and discuss the anomalies found during the review in a joint meeting.

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Questions 42

Which of the following isNOTa common objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Finding defects in the software

B.

Preventing defects

C.

Debugging the software to find the reason for defects

D.

Providing information on the status of the system

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Questions 43

Determining the schedule for each testing activity and test milestones for a test project, using activity estimates, available resources, and other constraints is a typical task performed during

Options:

A.

Test execution

B.

Test design.

C.

Test analysis.

D.

Test planning

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Questions 44

A software application incorrectly provided customers discounts of 50% off their total purchases if the purchases exceeded S100. It was discovered through an audit that the discount should have been only 5% off these purchases. A root cause analysis uncovered that the requirements Incorrectly stated 50% instead of 5% in this scenario.

Which of the following MOST accurately reflects this scenario?

Options:

A.

The audit finding Is the root cause, the incorrect calculation of 50% Is the defect, and the Incorrect requirement Is the effect

B.

The incorrect customer discount is the effect and the reason for the requirement error is the root cause

C.

The incorrect discount is the root cause, requiring a root cause analysis which led to investigating the software code, design, and requirements

D.

A defect in the code is determined to be the root cause of the incorrect calculation

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Questions 45

Which of the following statements is NOT true about Configuration management and software testing?

Options:

A.

Configuration management helps maintain consistent versions of software artifacts.

B.

Configuration management supports the build process, which is essential for delivering a test release into the test environment.

C.

When testers report defects, they need to reference version-controlled items.

D.

Version controlled test ware increases the chances of finding defects in the software under test.

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Questions 46

The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the total annual amount of the sales made (referred to as TAS).

If the TAS is between 50k€ and 80k€, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k€ by a value not greater than 40k€, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS

exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.

Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k€ = 1000 euros).

Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€

B.

TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€

C.

TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€

D.

TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€

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Questions 47

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY used to guide testing duringexploratory testing?

Options:

A.

A test charter that defines the testing objectives for the test session.

B.

A comprehensive specification that must be fully available before testing begins.

C.

A detailed test script that prescribes all the steps to be performed.

D.

A predefined test case that must be executed exactly as documented.

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Questions 48

Which ONE of the following statements would you expect to be the MOST DIRECT advantage of the whole-team approach?

Options:

A.

Capitalizing on the combined skills of business representatives, testers, and developers working together to contribute to project success.

B.

Reducing the involvement of business representatives because of enhanced communication and collaboration between testers and developers.

C.

Avoiding requirements misunderstandings that may not have been detected until dynamic testing when they are more expensive to fix.

D.

Having an automated build and test process, at least once a day, that detects integration errors early and quickly.

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Questions 49

Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?

Options:

A.

Can't be determined

B.

Covering all transitions at least once

C.

Covering only start and end states

D.

Covering all states at least once

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Questions 50

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

Options:

A.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.

C.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

D.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality.

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Questions 51

Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects:

[I]. The contrast color ratio for both normal text and large text of a website does not comply with the applicable accessibility guidelines, making it difficult for many users to read the content on the pages

[II]. A development vendor fails to deliver their software system on time, causing significant delays to system integration testing activities that have been planned as part of a development project for a system of systems

[III]. People in the test team do not have sufficient skills to automate tests at the test levels required by the test automation strategy which does not allow production of an effective regression test suite

[IV]. In a web application, data from untrusted sources is not subject to proper input validation, making the application vulnerable to several security attacks

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

[I] and [III] are product risks; [II] and [IV] are project risks

B.

[I] and [IV] are product risks. [II] and [III] are project risks

C.

[II], [III] and [IV] are product risks; [I] is a project risk

D.

[IV] is a product risk; [I]. [II] and [III] are project risks

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Questions 52

Which of the following statements is TRUE'?

Options:

A.

Unlike functional testing, non-fundional testing can only be applied to conventional systems, not artificial intelligence-based system.

B.

Functional testing focuses on what the system is supposed to do, while white-box testing focuses on how well the system does what it is supposed to do

C.

Functional testing can be applied to all test levels, while non-functional testing can be applied only to system and acceptance test levels.

D.

Black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques may be applicable to both functional testing and non-functional testing

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Questions 53

Given the following review process main activities and specific review activities:

a.Planning

b.Initiate review

c.Issue communication and analysis

d.Fixing and reporting

1.Creating defect reports

2.Estimating effort and timeframe

3.Recording updated status of defects

4.Selecting the people to participate

5.Distributing the work product and other material

6.Evaluating the review findings

Which of the following BEST matches the review process main activities with the appropriate specific review activities?

Options:

A.

2-a, 4-a, 5-b, 6-c, 1-d, 3-d

B.

2-a, 5-a, 1-b, 4-b, 3-c, 6-d

C.

1-a, 4-b, 5-b, 6-c, 2-d, 3-d

D.

2-a, 4-b, 5-c, 1-d. 3-d, 6-d

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Questions 54

Which of the following is a test task that usually occurs during test implementation?

Options:

A.

Make sure the planned test environment is ready to be delivered

B.

Find, analyze, and remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the tests

C.

Archive the testware for use in future test projects

D.

Gather the metrics that are used to guide the test project

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Questions 55

For a mandatory input field "ZIP code" the following rules are given:

1 - The valid ZIP code format is 5 numeric digits.

2 - The code has to exist in the post office's official ZIP code list

Using equivalence classes partitioning, how many test cases are required to test this field?

Options:

A.

8

B.

3

C.

6

D.

4

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Questions 56

Select the roles required in a formal review:

Options:

A.

Author, Management, Facilitator, Review Leader, Reviewers, Scribe

B.

Author, Tester. Facilitator. Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

C.

Author, Business analyst. Facilitator, Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

D.

Author. Developer, Facilitator. Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

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Questions 57

Which of the following statements best describes the way in which decision coverage is measured?

Options:

A.

Measured as the number of statements executed by the tests, divided by the total number of executable statements in the code.

B.

Measured as the number of lines of code executed by the tests, divided by the total number of lines of code in the test object.

C.

Measured as the number of decision outcomes executed by the tests, divided by the total number of decision outcomes in the test object.

D.

It is not possible to accurately measure decision coverage.

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Questions 58

You are testing the download process of a mobile phone application.

For which to the following capabilities to the system you need to design a nonfunctional test?

Options:

A.

It was easy to locate, download and install the application

B.

The application was correctly downloaded

C.

The application created an installation log file in a given folder

D.

The application installed only after the user's approval

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Questions 59

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

Test cases are made up of input values, expected results and actual results developed to cover test objectives

B.

Test cases describe items or events to test that are derived from the test basis during the test analysis activity

C.

Test cases are sequences of actions for test execution specified during the test implementation activity D. Test cases are derived during the test design activity to cover test objectives or test conditions

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Questions 60

What is test oracle?

Options:

A.

The source of lest objectives

B.

The source for the actual results

C.

The source of expected results

D.

The source of input conditions

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Questions 61

Software was found lo take much more time than the stated requirement of less than one second to save a file. Upon investigation it was found that there was an unnecessary check inside a loop which was slowing down the file-save operation. The software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of

Options:

A.

It is not a defect

B.

Defect

C.

Error

D.

Failure

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Questions 62

A system has valid input numbers ranging between 1000 and 99999 (both inclusive). Which of the following inputs are a result of designing tests for all valid equivalence classes and their boundaries?

Options:

A.

999.1000.23232.99999.100000

B.

999.1000.50000.100000.100001

C.

999.100000

D.

1000,50000,99999

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Questions 63

Which of the following isNOTan experience-based technique?

Options:

A.

Boundary value analysis.

B.

Error guessing

C.

Exploratory testing

D.

Fault attack

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Questions 64

In addition to thorough testing of the requirements specification, a development team aims to involve users as early as possible in the development process, using practices such as prototyping, to ensure that the software systems being developed will meet the users' expectations. This approach is especially useful at mitigating the risks associated with one of the seven testing principles, which one?

Options:

A.

Tests wear out

B.

Absence-of-errors fallacy

C.

Working software over comprehensive documentation.

D.

Defects cluster together

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Questions 65

Which of the following is true about Oracles?

Options:

A.

Sometimes old version of a product can be used as an Oracle

B.

Oracles help in reproducing the irreproducible bugs

C.

Oracles are derived from the design

D.

Oracles can be generated automatically using data generators

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Questions 66

Which ONE ofthe following options is NOT a test objective?

Options:

A.

Verifying whether specified requirements have been fulfilled

B.

Triggering failures and finding defects

C.

Finding errors

D.

Validating whether the test object is complete and works as expected by the stakeholders

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Questions 67

Given the following User Story: "As an online customer, I would like to be able to cancel the purchase of an individual item from a shopping list so that it only displays the relevant items, in less than 1 second", which of the following can be considered as applicable acceptance test cases?

I.Click on my online shopping list, select the unwanted Item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted Item is deleted from the shopping list in less than 1 second.

ii.Click on my online shopping list, select all the items, delete all the items, the unwanted items are deleted from the shopping list in less than 1 second.

iii.Tab to the online shopping list and press enter, select the unwanted item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted item is deleted from the shopping list In less than 1 second.

Iv. Click on the checkout button, select the payment method, make payment, confirmation received of payment and shipping date.

v. Click on my shopping list, select the unwanted Item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted item is deleted from the shopping list.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

I, ii and v

B.

iv

C.

i and iii

D.

v

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Questions 68

Which ONE of the following tools would be MOST SUITABLE for facilitating thecreation of test cases, test data, and test procedures?

Options:

A.

Test design and implementation toolsare specifically designed for creating test cases, test data, and test procedures.

B.

Static testing toolsas they assist the tester in conducting reviews and static analysis.

C.

DevOps tools, as they support the automated build process and CI/CD.

D.

Test execution and coverage toolsfacilitate the automated execution of tests and the measurement of test coverage.

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Questions 69

A team's test strategy was to invest equal effort in testing each of a system's modules. After running one test cycle, it turned out that most of the critical bugs were detected in one of the system's modules.

Which testing principal suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle?

Options:

A.

Pesticide Paradox

B.

Early testing

C.

Absence-of-errors fallacy

D.

Defect clustering

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Questions 70

Which statement about use case testing is true?

Options:

A.

The lest cases are designed to find defects in the data flew.

B.

The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers

C.

The test cases are always designed by customers or end users.

D.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow.

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Questions 71

Given the following state model of sales order software:

    PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

    IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

    IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED

    SHIPPED -> INVOICED

    INVOICED -> CANCELLED

    CANCELLED -> PLACED

Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level of transition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

Options:

A.

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

B.

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

C.

PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

D.

PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

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Questions 72

A company wants to reward each of its salespeople with an annual bonus that represents the sum of all the bonuses accumulated for every single sale made by that salesperson. The bonus for a single sale can take on the following four values: 3%, 5%, 7% and 10% (the percentage refers to the amount of the single sale). These values are determined on the basis of the type of customer (classified as "Basic" or "Premium") to which such sale was made, and on the amount of such sale classified into the following three groups G1, G2 and G3:

• [G1]: less than 300 euros

• [G2]: between 300 and 2000 euros

• [G3]: greater than 2000 euros

Which of the following is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table associated with this scenario?

Options:

A.

12

B.

6

C.

4

D.

3

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Questions 73

Mark the correct sentences:

* Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as "Failures"

* A human mistake may produce a defect

* A system mil totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it

* When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure

* Defects occur only as a result of technology changes

Options:

A.

II, IV

B.

I, II

C.

IV, V

D.

II, III, IV

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Questions 74

During component testing of a program if 100% decision coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is also guaranteed to be 100%?

Options:

A.

100% Stale transition coverage

B.

100% Equivalence class coverage

C.

100% Boundary value coverage

D.

100% Statement coverage

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Questions 75

Which two of the following statements describe the advantages provided by good traceability between the test basis and test work products?

I. Analyzing the impact of changes.

ii. A measure of code quality.

iii. Accurate test estimation.

iv. Making testing auditable.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

i and ii

B.

i and iv

C.

i and iii

D.

ii and iii

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Questions 76

Following a risk-based testing approach you have designed 10 tests to cover a product risk with a high-risk level. You want to estimate, adopting the three-point test estimation technique, the test effort required to reduce the risk level to zero by executing those 10 tests. You made the following three initial estimates:

• most optimistic = 6 person hours

• most likely = 30 person hours

• most pessimistic = 54 person hours

Based only on the given information, which of the following answers about the three-point test estimation technique applied to this problem is true?

Options:

A.

The final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours

B.

The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the initial most likely estimate as the final estimate

C.

The final estimate is between 6 person hours and 54 person hours

D.

The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the arithmetic mean of the three initial estimates as the final estimate

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Questions 77

Given the following statements:

1.It can prevent defects by manual examination of the functional specification

2.It is effective since it can be performed very early in the software development life cycle

3.It can detect the failures in the running application

4.It can help eliminate defects in user stories

5.It can verify externally visible behaviors

Which set of statements represent values ONLY for static testing?

Options:

A.

1,3, 4.5

B.

2,4,5

C.

1,2,4

D.

1,2, 3. 4,5

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Questions 78

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

User acceptance tests are usually automated and aim to verify the acceptance criteria for user stories

B.

Acceptance criteria for user stories can include details on data definitions, for example by describing the format, allowed values, and default values for a data item

C.

Acceptance criteria for user stones should focus on positive scenarios, while negative scenarios should be excluded

D.

Tests derived from acceptance criteria for user stories are not included in any of the four testing quadrants

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Questions 79

You are testing an e-commerce system that sporadically fails to properly manage customers' shopping carts. You have stressed the urgency of this situation to the development manager and development team and they recognize the priority of resolving the underlying defect. The development team is waiting for more information, which you will include in your defect report. Given the following items of information they are included in a typical defect report:

1. The expected results

2. The actual results

3. The urgency and priority to fix this

4. The date and author of the defect report

5. A description of the defect in order to reproduce, including screenshots and database dumps

Which of these items will be MOST useful to the developers to help them identify and remove the defect causing this failure?

Options:

A.

1, 2, 5

B.

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

C.

1, 2, 4

D.

3, 4

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Questions 80

Which of the following are the phases of the ISTQB fundamental test process?

Options:

A.

Test planning and control, Test analysis and design, Test implementation and execution, Evaluating ex t criteria and reporting. Test closure activities

B.

Test planning, Test analysis and design. Test implementation and control. Checking test coverage and reporting, Test closure activities

C.

Test planning and control, Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution, Evaluating test coverage and reporting, Retesting and regression testing, Test closure activities

D.

Test planning. Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting. Retesting and test closure activities

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Questions 81

Consider the followinguser storyand itsacceptance criteria:

User Story:

As a member of the"Agnotoly"association, I want to be able topay the association’s dues through an automatic payment methodso that I can forget about payment deadlines.

Acceptance Criteria:

    The member can only pay with‘Agnesis Master’ credit card.

    The member must register theircell phone number.

    The member must register thecredit cardin the payment system.

    The member must select apayment method (monthly or annual).

    The member mustaccept the terms and conditionsfor the selected method.

    If terms and conditions are accepted, the system sends anOTP(one-time password) to the member’s phone for verification.

    The payment method isregistered only after OTP verification.

    Once the payment method is registered, the system will charge on the first business day of the following month.

Test Cycle Results:

    Members successfully paid dues using the credit card.

    Payments were processedmonthly and for over a year.

Which ONE of the following options identifies the acceptance criteria that has NOT been fully covered?

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria 8 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

B.

Acceptance criteria 4 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

C.

All acceptance criteria have been fully covered during the above test cycle.

D.

Acceptance criteria 6 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

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Questions 82

Your manager asked you when testing will be complete. In order to answer this question, you'll most likely use:

Options:

A.

Test progress reports

B.

Your colleagues advice

C.

A conversion spreadsheet

D.

A Test Oracle

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Questions 83

Consider the following statements about risk-based testing.

I) Risk-based testing has the objective to reduce the level of protect risks.

II) Tests should be prioritized to find tie critical detects as early as possible.

III) Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk

IV) Risks have to bereassessedon a regular basis.

V) The project stakeholders can give useful input to determine the risks

Options:

A.

I III IV and V are true. II is false.

B.

II, IIIIVandVarecorrect. I isfalse.

C.

C. I, II and IV are true.IIIand V are false.

D.

II, Ill and V are true.1antsIv are false.

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Questions 84

Testing Quadrants, as a model, is effective in aligning stakeholders within Agile teams.

Which of the following examples demonstrates this?

Options:

A.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to measure and communicate test coverage to all stakeholders.

B.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to communicate potential product risk to all stakeholders.

C.

Using Testing Quadrant, the test manager is able to prioritize defects by linking these to a specific type of test.

D.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to differentiate and describe the types of tests to all stakeholders.

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Questions 85

The following part of a business process flow is specified; REPEAT (book a bill) UNTIL (User presses Cancel). How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% branch coverage of the process flow?

Options:

A.

4

B.

1

C.

2

D.

Infinite

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Questions 86

In a two-hour uninterrupted test session, performed as part of an iteration on an Agile project, a heuristic checklist was used to help the tester focus on some specific usability issues of a web application.

The unscripted tests produced by the tester's experience during such session belong to which one of the following testing quadrants?

Options:

A.

Q1

B.

Q2

C.

Q3

D.

Q4

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Questions 87

A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is anemergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.

Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?

Options:

A.

Code coverage

B.

Data flow coverage

C.

Statement coverage

D.

Branch Coverage

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Questions 88

Which of the following statements about branch coverage is true?

Options:

A.

The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually lower than that needed to achieve full statement coverage

B.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have surely been exercised

C.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have surely been exercised

D.

Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage

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Questions 89

ST is a Software Testing organization which utilizes a testing knowledge base. Access to ST knowledge base can be either full or limited. Access level is determined based on ST certification and testing experience as follows:

1. If ST certified, with less than 5 years testing experience - allow limited access

2. If ST certified, 5-10 years of testing experience - allow full access

3. If not ST certified with 5-10 years of testing experience - allow limited access.

What would be the results for:

A - ST certified. 12 years of testing experience

B - Not ST certified. 7 years of testing experience

C - Not ST certified. 3 years of testing experience

Options:

A.

A - unknown

B - limned access

C- unknown

B.

A - full access

B - limited access

C - unknown

C.

A - full access

B - limited access

C - limited access

D.

A - unknown

B - full access

C - unknown

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Questions 90

As a tester, as part of a V-model project, you are currently executing some tests aimed at verifying if a mobile app asks the user to grant the proper access permissions during the installation process and after the installation process. The requirements specification states that in both cases the app shall ask the user to grant access permissions only to the camera and photos stored on the device. However, you observe that the app also asks the user to grant access permission to all contacts on the device. Consider the following items:

[I]. Test environment

[ii]. Expected result

[iii]. Actual result.

[IV] Test level.

[V]. Root cause.

Based on only the given information, which of the items listed above, are you able to CORRECTLY specify in a defect report?

Options:

A.

[l] and [IV]

B.

[ii] and [III].

C.

[ii], [iii] and [v]

D.

[ii], [IV] and [V].

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Questions 91

Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

Options:

A.

Risk level is determined by calculating the absolute value of the sum of all potential issues that may occur on the project

B.

Risk level is calculated by adding the probabilities of all planned risks to a project

C.

Risk level is calculated by dividing the sum of all known risks by the sum of all unknown risks

D.

Risk level is determined by the likelihood of an event happening and the impact or harm from that event

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Questions 92

Which of the following statements is the BEST example of non-functional testing?

Options:

A.

Tests which capture the time it takes to save a file

B.

Tests which calculate overtime pay for those employees entitled to such

C.

Tests related to "what" the system should do

D.

Tests based on the internal structure of a component or system

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Questions 93

Which of the following is correct with regards to debugging?

Options:

A.

Debugging identifies the cause of a failure

B.

Debugging is often performed by test engineers

C.

Debugging is considered part of the testing activities

D.

Debugging is intended to find as many defects as possible in the code

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Questions 94

Which of the following statements about white-box testing is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Static testing can benefit from using code-related white-box test techniques during code reviews.

B.

White-box testing allows suggesting test cases for increasing coverage levels which are based on objective measures

C.

Achieving full code coverage for a component or a system ensures that it has been fully tested

D.

Black-box testing can benefit from using code-related white-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code.

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Questions 95

You are testing the latest version of an air-traffic control system prior to production deployment using exploratory testing. After following an unusual sequence of input steps,the system crashes. After the crash, you document a defect report with the following information:

•Title: System crashes unexpectedly during input.

•Brief summary: System crashes when an unusual sequence of inputs is used.

•Version: V1.001

•Test: Exploratory testing prior to production deployment

•Priority: Urgent

•Risk: High

•References: Screenshot of crashed application

What critical Information Is missing from this report?

Options:

A.

Conclusions, recommendations, and approvals.

B.

Change history.

C.

Description of the defect to enable reproduction.

D.

Status of defect

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Questions 96

Which of the statements correctly describes when a whole team approach may NOT be suitable?

Options:

A.

When a high level of test independence may be required.

B.

When acceptance tests need to be created.

C.

When a test automation approach needs to be determined.

D.

When the team dynamics need to be improved.

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Questions 97

A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts (aimed at testing the system under test) that interact with that service, are test work products that are typically created during:

Options:

A.

Test monitoring and control

B.

Test implementation

C.

Test design

D.

Test analysis

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Questions 98

Which ONE of the following options identifies the perspectives through which acollective authorship processgenerates a shared vision of user stories?

Options:

A.

Product owner, development, and testing

B.

Business, architecture, and testing

C.

Business, development, and testing

D.

Business, development, and acceptance testing

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Exam Code: ISTQB-CTFL
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0)
Last Update: Apr 9, 2025
Questions: 328
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