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ISTQB-CTFL Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Given the following user story for the development of an online shoe store:

"As a customer, I want to be able to filter shoes by color so that I see, for example, only red shoes in the selection."

Which of the following positive test cases BEST fits to the user story?

Options:

A.

Precondition: Home page of the shoe store is opened

Test steps to be performed:

Tick "red" in the color selection.

Click on the "Filter" button.

Expected result: Only red shoes are displayed.

B.

Precondition: Home page of the shoe store is opened

Test steps to be performed:

Tick "red" in the color selection.

Click on the "Filter" button.

Expected result: Within 2 seconds all red shoes are displayed, then the other colors.

C.

Precondition: Homepage of shoe store with shoes size 40 is opened

Test steps to be performed:

Tick "red" in the color selection.

Click on the "Filter" button.

Expected result: Only red shoes of size 40 are displayed.

D.

Precondition: Home page of the shoe store is opened

Test steps to be performed:

User logs in with his customer ID.

Tick "green" in the color selection.

Click on the "Filter" button.

Expected result: Only red shoes are displayed.

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Questions 5

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between product risk and project risk in software testing?

Options:

A.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with the project's schedule, budget, and resources, while project risk refers to the risk associated with the quality and functionality of the software product.

B.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with issues such as delays in work product deliveries, inaccurate estimates, while project risk refers to the risk associated with the project's schedule, budget, and resources.

C.

Product risk and project risk are essentially the same and can be used interchangeably.

D.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with delays in elements such as work product deliveries and inaccurate estimates, while project risk refers to the risk associated with issues such as user dissatisfaction.

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Questions 6

Which statement is true regarding confirmation testing and regression testing?

Options:

A.

Confirmation testing confirms the quality of the test being run while regression testing ensures that the software still works after a change has been made.

B.

Confirmation testing is an optional activity whilst regression testing is not negotiable.

C.

Confirmation testing aims to verify that a defect has been resolved and regression testing ensuring that existing functionality still works after a change.

D.

Testers' involvement is essential whilst running retesting and regression testing.

E.

TESTER Involvement is essential whilst running retesting and regression testing.

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Questions 7

Which of the following correctly represents a test first approach?

Options:

A.

Code is refactored first then tests are written and run

B.

Application behaviour is written in Given/When/then format and tests are then written and run

C.

Tests are derived from acceptance criteria and run to check that the code passes these tests

D.

First the tests fail then the code is written to pass the tests and this is iterated

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Questions 8

Which of the following statements about traceability is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, makes it possible to determine which test basis items have been covered by the executed test cases.

B.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables experience-based test techniques to be applied

C.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables identification of which test cases will be affected by changes to the test basis items.

D.

Traceability can be established and maintained through all the test documentation for a given test level, such as from test conditions through test cases to test scripts.

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Questions 9

Which of the following statements about statement coverage is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Achieving 90% statement coverage ensures that 90% branch coverage is achieved.

B.

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that no variable within the code has been used without being initialised.

C.

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that 100% branch coverage is achieved

D.

Achieving 80% statement coverage ensures that 80% of all executable statements within the code have been exercised.

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Questions 10

Why is it important to select a test technique?

Options:

A.

There are usually loo many test cases that may be run on a system. Test techniques help reduce the number of tests.

B.

The only way to test a software application is by using well proven test techniques.

C.

Selecting the right test technique in a given situation Increases the effectiveness of the test process Oy creating tests with higher chance of finding bugs.

D.

Test techniques define the number of regression cycles, which in turn impact the project schedule.

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Questions 11

Test automation allows you to:

Options:

A.

demonstrate the absence of defects

B.

produce tests that are less subject to human errors

C.

avoid performing exploratory testing

D.

increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects

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Questions 12

The following diagram displays the logical dependencies between requirements and the individual requirement priorities. For example, "R2->R3" means that R3 is dependent on R2. Priority is indicated by the number next to the letter ”P" i.e. P1 has a higher priority than P2.

Which one of the following options best describes the test execution sequence using both requirement dependency and priority

Options:

A.

R2. R1, R3. R4. R5, R6. R7, R8.

B.

R1, R2, R3, R4, R5, R6, R7, R8.

C.

R2, R4. R8, R5, R1, R6, R3, R7.

D.

. R2, R1,R3,R7,R6,R5,R4,R8.

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Questions 13

Which of the following characterizations applies to a test tool used for the analysis of a developer's code prior to its execution?

Options:

A.

Tool support for test design and implementation.

B.

Tool support for static testing.

C.

Tool support for test execution and logging.

D.

Tool support for performance measurement and dynamic analysis.

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Questions 14

Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to be used as the basis for a test exit criteria?

Options:

A.

Test schedules

B.

Cost of testing performed so far

C.

Confidence of testers in tested code

D.

Number of unfixed defects

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Questions 15

Which of the following tools is most likely to detect defects in functions or methods in source code?

Options:

A.

configuration management tool

B.

unit test framework tool

C.

test design tool

D.

monitoring tool

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Questions 16

Which of the following statements about test reports are TRUE?

I Test reports shall be approved by the test team.

II. Test reports shall give stakeholders information as basis for decisions.

Ill Test reports shall summarize what happened through a period of testing.

IV. Test reports shall be approved by the development team, the test team and the customer

V. Test reports shall include information about remaining risks.

Options:

A.

II, III, V

B.

I, II, IV

C.

I, III, v

D.

II, III, IV

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Questions 17

As a tester, as part of a V-model project, you are currently executing some tests aimed at verifying if a mobile app asks the user to grant the proper access permissions during the installation process and after the installation process. The requirements specification states that in both cases the app shall ask the user to grant access permissions only to the camera and photos stored on the device. However, you observe that the app also asks the user to grant access permission to all contacts on the device. Consider the following items:

[I]. Test environment

[ii]. Expected result

[iii]. Actual result.

[IV] Test level.

[V]. Root cause.

Based on only the given information, which of the items listed above, are you able to CORRECTLY specify in a defect report?

Options:

A.

[l] and [IV]

B.

[ii] and [III].

C.

[ii], [iii] and [v]

D.

[ii], [IV] and [V].

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Questions 18

Which one of the following is a typical entry criteria for testing?

Options:

A.

Planned tests have been executed.

B.

Availability of testable requirements.

C.

The number of unresolved defects is within an agreed limit.

D.

The number of estimated remaining defects is sufficiently low.

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Questions 19

Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?

Options:

A.

Functional Testing

B.

Code inspection

C.

Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it

D.

Coverage analysis

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Questions 20

You are testing the latest version of an air-traffic control system prior to production deployment using exploratory testing. After following an unusual sequence of input steps, the system crashes. After the crash, you document a defect report with the following information:

•Title: System crashes unexpectedly during input.

•Brief summary: System crashes when an unusual sequence of inputs is used.

•Version: V1.001

•Test: Exploratory testing prior to production deployment

•Priority: Urgent

•Risk: High

•References: Screenshot of crashed application

What critical Information Is missing from this report?

Options:

A.

Conclusions, recommendations, and approvals.

B.

Change history.

C.

Description of the defect to enable reproduction.

D.

Status of defect

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Questions 21

You are testing an e-commerce system that sporadically fails to properly manage customers' shopping carts. You have stressed the urgency of this situation to the development manager and development team and they recognize the priority of resolving the underlying defect. The development team is waiting for more information, which you will include in your defect report. Given the following items of information they are included in a typical defect report:

1. The expected results

2. The actual results

3. The urgency and priority to fix this

4. The date and author of the defect report

5. A description of the defect in order to reproduce, including screenshots and database dumps

Which of these items will be MOST useful to the developers to help them identify and remove the defect causing this failure?

Options:

A.

1, 2, 5

B.

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

C.

1, 2, 4

D.

3, 4

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Questions 22

You are testing a room upgrade system for a hotel. The system accepts three differed types of room (increasing order of luxury): Platinum. Silver and Gold Luxury. ONLY a Preferred Guest Card holder s eligible for an upgrade.

Below you can find the decision table defining the upgrade eligibility:

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?

Customer A: Preference Guest Card holder, holding a Silver room

Customer B: Non Preferred Guest Card holder, holding a Platinum room

Options:

A.

Customer A; doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: offers upgrade to Gold luxury room

B.

Customer A: doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade.

C.

Customer A: offers upgrade to Gold Luxury room; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade

D.

Customer A: offers upgrade to Silver room; Customer B: offers upgrade to Silver room.

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Questions 23

Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?

Options:

A.

Can't be determined

B.

Covering all transitions at least once

C.

Covering only start and end states

D.

Covering all states at least once

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Questions 24

From a testing perspective, configuration management

Options:

A.

Allows the expected results to be compared with the actual results.

B.

Allows the tracking of all changes to versions of the testware.

C.

Includes all activities that direct and control an organisation with regard to quality

D.

Focuses on configuring static analysis tools to choose the most suitable breadth and depth of analysis.

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Questions 25

Which of the following is the BEST reason for selecting a particular type of software development lifecycle model?

Options:

A.

The project manager's preference

B.

Tester skill level with the software development lifecycle model

C.

The project team's overall familiarity with the model

D.

The type of product being developed

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Questions 26

Which of the following should be included in a test status report?

I. Estimation details

II. Total number of open and closed defects

III Actual effort spent

IV. Defect reports

V. Number of executed, failed, blocked tests

Options:

A.

III.V

B.

II, III

C.

I. II. IV

D.

II, III.V

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Questions 27

4 equivalence classes are given for integer values:

0 < x <100

100<= x <= 200

200 < x < 500

x >= 500

Which of the following options represent correct set of data for valid equivalence class partitions?

Options:

A.

50; 100; 200. 1000

B.

0. 1.99, 100.200,201.499, 500;

C.

0.50; 100; 150.200.350.500;

D.

50; 100; 250; 1000

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Questions 28

Consider the following list of activities (I to V):

I. Test design

II. Test planning

III. Review test basis

IV. Be a facilitator of a peer review

V. Test monitoring and control

Which ONE of the following options identifies the activities that the test management role is MAINLY focused on?

Options:

A.

Activities III, IV, and V

B.

Activities II and V

C.

Activities I and V

D.

Activities I, III, and IV

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Questions 29

Which of the following statements correctly describe the business facing quadrant that supports the team?

Options:

A.

Exploratory tests are generally used for this quadrant

B.

It is the quadrant that deals with tests created on the basis of user stories.

C.

It is the quadrant that component testing

D.

It is the quadrant that Non-functional testing such as performance and the tests are created on the basis of user scenarios

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Questions 30

Which review type, also known as a “buddy check”, is commonly used in Agile development?

Options:

A.

Inspection.

B.

Walkthrough.

C.

Technical review.

D.

Informal review.

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Questions 31

A new web app aims at offering a rich user experience. As a functional tester, you have run some functional tests to verify that, before releasing the app, such app works correctly on several mobile devices, all of which are listed as supported devices within the requirements specification. These tests were performed on stable and isolated test environments where you were the only user interacting with the application. All tests passed, but in some of those tests you observed the following issue: on some mobile devices only, the response time for two web pages containing images was extremely slow.

Based only on the given information, which of the following recommendation would you follow?

Options:

A.

You should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue

B.

The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality. Thus, as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed

C.

You should not open any defect report as the problem is most likely due to poor hardware equipment on the devices where you observed the issue

D.

You should not open any defect report and inform the test manager that the devices on which you observed the issue should no longer be supported so that they will be removed from the requirements specification

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Questions 32

Given the following state model of sales order software:

    PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

    IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

    IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED

    SHIPPED -> INVOICED

    INVOICED -> CANCELLED

    CANCELLED -> PLACED

Which of the following sequences of tran-sitions provides the highest level of tran-sition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

Options:

A.

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

B.

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

C.

PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

D.

PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

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Questions 33

Which of the following applications will be the MOST suitable for testing by Use Cases

Options:

A.

Accuracy and usability of a new Navigation system compared with previous system

B.

A billing system used to calculate monthly charge based or large number of subscribers parameters

C.

The ability of an Anti virus package to detect and quarantine a new threat

D.

Suitability and performance of a Multi media (audio video based) system to a new operating system

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Questions 34

Which of the following metrics relates to the number of defects per unit size of a work product?

Options:

A.

Requirement coverage

B.

Average operating time until failure

C.

Fault density

D.

Number of executed test cases in relation to non-executed test cases

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Questions 35

What does configuration management enable for testing?

Options:

A.

It enables the scheduling of test resources.

B.

It enables the derivation of test cases and test data.

C.

It enables the creation of test progress reports.

D.

It enables the versioning of the test elements.

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Questions 36

Which of the following statements are true?

1. Early and frequent feedback helps to avoid requirements misunderstanding.

2. Early feedback allows teams to do more with less.

3. Early feedback allows the team to focus on the most Important features.

4. Early and frequent feedback clarifies customer feedback by applying static testing techniques

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

3

B.

2

C.

1

D.

4

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Questions 37

A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display. Age groups are:

Group I: 0-12

Group II; 13-18

Group III: over 18

Which of the below represent boundary values?

Options:

A.

(-1.0.12.13.18,19)

B.

(-1.0,11.12.13,14,18.19)

C.

(0.12.13.18.19)

D.

(4.5.15.20)

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Questions 38

Which of the following statements best describes how configuration management supports testing?

Options:

A.

Configuration management helps reduce testing effort by identifying a manageable number of test environment configurations in which to test the software, out of all possible configurations of the environment in which the software will be released

B.

Configuration management is an administrative discipline that includes change control, which is the process of controlling the changes to identified items referred to as Configuration Items'

C.

Configuration management is an approach to interoperability testing where tests are executed in the cloud, as the cloud can provide cost-effective access to multiple configurations of the test environments

D.

Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation

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Questions 39

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

Test cases are made up of input values, expected results and actual results developed to cover test objectives

B.

Test cases describe items or events to test that are derived from the test basis during the test analysis activity

C.

Test cases are sequences of actions for test execution specified during the test implementation activity D. Test cases are derived during the test design activity to cover test objectives or test conditions

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Questions 40

During which review process activity are the exit criteria for an inspection defined?

Options:

A.

Review Initiation

B.

Planning

C.

Communication and analysis

D.

Fixing and reporting

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Questions 41

Which of the following statements about reviews are TRUE?

I. In walkthroughs the review meeting is typically led by the author.

II Inspection is characterized by an open-ended review meeting

III Preparation before the review meeting is part of informal reviews

IV Management rarely participates in technical review meetings

Options:

A.

II, Ill

B.

I, II

C.

I, IV

D.

III, IV

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Questions 42

Consider the following statements (I to V) about software testing:

I. Can be applied to non-executable work products.

II. Can be used to measure performance efficiency.

III. Can lead to the detection of defects.

IV. Can find defects directly.

V. Can identify unexpected behaviors caused by potential defects.

Which ONE of the following options is the list that characterizes static tests the BEST?

Options:

A.

Statements I, III, and IV

B.

Statements II, IV, and V

C.

Statements I, II, and IV

D.

Statements II, III, and V

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Questions 43

Which of the following statements about independent testing is WRONG?

Options:

A.

Independent testing is necessary because developers don't know any testing.

B.

Independent testing is best suited for the system test level.

C.

A certain degree of independence makes the tester more effective at finding defects.

D.

Independent test teams may find other types of detects than developers who are familiar with the system's structure.

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Questions 44

Which statement best describes the key difference between a mindset for test activities and a mindset for development activities?

Options:

A.

A tester possesses professional pessimism while a developer is concerned with validating the product

B.

A tester is concerned with finding defects while a developer is interested in designing solutions

C.

A tester is interested in building solutions while a developer is concerned with verifying the product

D.

A tester is concerned with verifying the product while a developer possesses professional pessimism

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Questions 45

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software. Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning. However, the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever.

Which of the following tools had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

Options:

A.

Test Execution tool

B.

Configuration Management Tool

C.

Backup tool

D.

Incident Management Tool

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Questions 46

Who of the following has the best knowledge to decide what tests in a test project should be automated?

Options:

A.

The developer

B.

The customer

C.

The development manager

D.

The test leader

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Questions 47

A software application incorrectly provided customers discounts of 50% off their total purchases if the purchases exceeded S100. It was discovered through an audit that the discount should have been only 5% off these purchases. A root cause analysis uncovered that the requirements Incorrectly stated 50% instead of 5% in this scenario.

Which of the following MOST accurately reflects this scenario?

Options:

A.

The audit finding Is the root cause, the incorrect calculation of 50% Is the defect, and the Incorrect requirement Is the effect

B.

The incorrect customer discount is the effect and the reason for the requirement error is the root cause

C.

The incorrect discount is the root cause, requiring a root cause analysis which led to investigating the software code, design, and requirements

D.

A defect in the code is determined to be the root cause of the incorrect calculation

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Questions 48

What role in a formal or technical review should mediate between different opinions to ensure an effective review?

Options:

A.

Scribe (or recorder)

B.

Manager

C.

Moderator (or facilitator)

D.

Reviewer

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Questions 49

Which TWO of the following are benefits of continuous integration?

I. Allows earlier detection and easier root cause analysis of integration problems and conflicting changes.

II. Removes the need for manual test analysis, design and execution.

Hi. Removes the dependency on automated regression packs when integrating larger systems, or components.

iv. Gives the development team regular feedback on whether the code is working.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

i and iv

B.

i and ii

C.

i and iii

D.

iii and iv

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Questions 50

Which of the following statements regarding the testing quadrants model is correct?

Options:

A.

The testing quadrants model provides a way of differentiating between types of tests and assists in explaining them to stakeholders.

B.

The testing quadrants model assigns test types to the corresponding V-Model test levels.

C.

With the testing quadrants model, tests can be either business-oriented or product-oriented.

D.

The testing quadrants model assigns tests from one of the four quadrants to each iteration in the Agile development.

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Questions 51

Which ONE of the following options corresponds to an activity in the testing process in which testable features are identified?

Options:

A.

Test design

B.

Test analysis

C.

Test implementation

D.

Test execution

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Questions 52

Which ONE of the following work products TYPICALLY belongs to test execution?

Options:

A.

Test logs that document the results of test execution.

B.

Automated test scripts used for test execution.

C.

A test plan that describes the test strategy and test objectives.

D.

A list of test conditions prioritized during test analysis.

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Questions 53

A test manager defined the following test levels in her test plan; Component, System and Acceptance.

Which Software Development lifecycle is the Test Manager most likely following?

Options:

A.

V-Model

B.

Agile

C.

Waterfall

D.

Prototyping

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Questions 54

For the same financial institution in Question 12, with the same requirements and expectations, what would be the most likely investment values used in testing if two-point boundary value analysis is used to design test cases specific to the 13% interest rate equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

R100 000, R100 001, R500 000, R500 001.

B.

R99 999, R100 000, R499 999, R500 000.

C.

R100 000. R500 000.

D.

R99 000, R500 001.

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Questions 55

Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

Testing based on the structure of the software under test (SUT) is white-box testing whereas testing the input-output behaviour without prewritten test cases is experience based testing.

B.

Testing the software under test (SUT) is possible only after implementation in white-box testing whereas testing the software even before implementation is possible in exploratory testing.

C.

Testing the software under test (SUT) using knowledge of the tester is experience based testing whereas without pre-written test cases is using black-box testing techniques.

D.

Testing the software under test (SUT) based on design is black-box testing whereas testing the input-output behaviour is experience based testing.

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Questions 56

During iteration planning, a scrum team uses an estimation technique called planning poker to estimate the effort required to deliver a critical user story. In advance of the estimation session, the team agreed on some ground rules to limit the number of poker rounds and save time.

The team agreed on the following:

1. They will use the following progression for estimation: Extra-small, Small, Medium, Large, Extra-large, and Extra-extra-large.

2. If estimation values differ significantly, the highest score will be used for estimation purposes.

The result of the first round of planning poker:

Team MemberEstimation

BusinessLarge

DevelopmentExtra-extra-large

TestingExtra-extra-large

Which of the following options best represent the team’s next actions?

Options:

A.

The fact that all estimations are high indicate that the user story is not well understood or should be broken down into multiple smaller stories.

B.

The pre-agreed rules state that the highest score should be used for estimation, resulting in the user story being categorised as Extra-extra-large.

C.

Since the business representative is likely to have the most informed view of the requirement, the user story is categorised as a Large.

D.

the team discusses the differences in the estimates and repeats the poker round until an agreemet is reached.

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Questions 57

Which ONE of the following statements about acceptance testing is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

Testing of disaster recovery and backup/restore is usually NOT part of acceptance testing.

B.

The customers or system users are often responsible for the acceptance testing.

C.

The main goal of acceptance testing is to build confidence in the system, not find defects.

D.

Acceptance testing is the last level of testing performed prior to system release.

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Questions 58

Software was found lo take much more time than the stated requirement of less than one second to save a file. Upon investigation it was found that there was an unnecessary check inside a loop which was slowing down the file-save operation. The software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of

Options:

A.

It is not a defect

B.

Defect

C.

Error

D.

Failure

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Questions 59

Which ONE of the following options is a PRODUCT risk and NOT a PROJECT risk?

Options:

A.

Incorrect calculation logic in the software, leading to inaccurate results.

B.

Poor communication between team members, making project management more difficult.

C.

Staff shortages in the project leading to scheduling problems.

D.

Delays in the delivery of work products by the project team.

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Questions 60

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of test automation?

Options:

A.

More subjective assessment

B.

Reduction in repetitive manual work

C.

Availability of the test automation tool vendor

D.

Negligible effort to maintain the test assets generated by the tool

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Questions 61

Which of the following is the BEST example of whole team approach?

Options:

A.

Anyone can perform a task they are capable of

B.

Sharing same physical workspace is a must

C.

Testing is the responsibility of the entire team

D.

Developers should depend on the business analysts as there is no distinction between testers and developers

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Questions 62

Consider the following user story about an e-commerce website's registration feature that only allows registered users to make purchases ; As a new user, I want to register to the website, so that I can start shopping online"

The following are some of the acceptance criteria defined for the user story

[a] The registration form consists of the following fields: username, email address, first name, last name, date of birth, password and repeat password.

[b] To submit the registration request, the new user must fill in all the fields of the registration form with valid values and must agree to the terms and conditions.

[c] To be valid, the email address must not be provided by free online mail services that allow to create disposable email addresses. A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid address is entered.

[d] To be valid, the first name and last name must contain only alphabetic characters and must be between 2 and 80 characters long A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid first name and/or the last name is entered

[e] After submitting the registration request, the new user must receive an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form

Based only on the given information, which of the following ATDD tests is MOST LIKELY to be written first?

Options:

A.

The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the email address, where he/she enters an e-mail address provided by a free online mail service that allow to create disposable email addresses. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue.

B.

The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the first name, where he/she enters a first name with 10 characters that contains a number. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue.

C.

The user accesses the website with a username and password, and successfully places a purchase order for five items, paying by Mastercard credit card

D.

The new user enters valid values in all the fields of the registration form, confirms to accept all the terms and conditions, submits the registration request and then receives an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form

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Questions 63

Which of the following statements is TRUE'?

Options:

A.

Unlike functional testing, non-fundional testing can only be applied to conventional systems, not artificial intelligence-based system.

B.

Functional testing focuses on what the system is supposed to do, while white-box testing focuses on how well the system does what it is supposed to do

C.

Functional testing can be applied to all test levels, while non-functional testing can be applied only to system and acceptance test levels.

D.

Black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques may be applicable to both functional testing and non-functional testing

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Questions 64

A bank offers a savings account with various interest rates based on the current balance in the account. The balance ranges and respective interest rates are:

Up to $100.00 =2%

$100.01 to $500.00 = 4%

$500.01 to $1,000.00 = 5%

Above $1,000.00 = 7%

Using two-point boundary value analysis, which of the following sets of test inputs provides the relatively highest level of boundary coverage?

Options:

A.

$5.00.$100.00,$499.99,$1,000.00,$1,000.01

B.

$100.00. $100.01,$100.02,$500.00,$999.99

C.

$100.00, $500.00,$1,000.00,$1,000.01

D.

$5.00.$100.00,$500.00,$1,000.01

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Questions 65

Which of the following BEST matches the attributes with a level of testing?

I. Stubs and drivers are often used

II The lest environment should correspond to the production environment

III Finding defects is not the main focus

IV Testing can be based on use cases

V Testing is normally performed by testers

VI Testing for functional and non-functional characteristics

Options:

A.

Component - VI

Integration - IV

System -1

Acceptance - 111

B.

Component - IV

Integration -1

System - VI

Acceptance - V

C.

Component-I

Integration - V

System - II

Acceptance - IV

D.

Component - V

Integration - II

System - IV

Acceptance - VI

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Questions 66

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes the third test quadrant (Q3)?

Options:

A.

This test quadrant contains smoke tests and non-functional tests (except usability tests). These tests are often automated.

B.

This test quadrant is business-facing and criticizes the system. It contains exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing.

C.

This test quadrant contains functional tests, examples, user story tests, user experience prototypes, API testing, and simulations. These tests check the acceptance criteria and can be manual or automated.

D.

This test quadrant is technology-facing and supports the team. These tests should be automated and included in the continuous integration (CI) process.

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Questions 67

Which of the following is a function of a dynamic analysis tool?

Options:

A.

Provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents

B.

Monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program

C.

Execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects

D.

Provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items

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Questions 68

ST is a Software Testing organization which utilizes a testing knowledge base. Access to ST knowledge base can be either full or limited. Access level is determined based on ST certification and testing experience as follows:

1. If ST certified, with less than 5 years testing experience - allow limited access

2. If ST certified, 5-10 years of testing experience - allow full access

3. If not ST certified with 5-10 years of testing experience - allow limited access.

What would be the results for:

A - ST certified. 12 years of testing experience

B - Not ST certified. 7 years of testing experience

C - Not ST certified. 3 years of testing experience

Options:

A.

A - unknown

B - limned access

C- unknown

B.

A - full access

B - limited access

C - unknown

C.

A - full access

B - limited access

C - limited access

D.

A - unknown

B - full access

C - unknown

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Questions 69

Which of the following statements best describes the value of maintaining traceability in software testing?

Options:

A.

Traceability helps to identify the root cause of defects and improve the quality of the software product.

B.

Traceability helps to monitor project progress and assess the coverage.

C.

Traceability of test results to risks and residual expenditure helps evaluate requirements coverage.

D.

Traceability helps to identify the root causes of failures and to set priorities for retest and regression testing.

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Questions 70

In what way do Configuration Management effects testing?

Options:

A.

Without proper configuration management, test planning cannot proceed.

B.

Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identity the tested item

C.

Configuration management is important for developers, not for testers

D.

There is very little influence of configuration management practices on the test project.

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Questions 71

Consider a review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect. The architect does most of the review preparation work, including distributing the document to reviewers before the review meeting. However, reviewers are not required to analyze the document in advance, and during the review meeting the software architect explains the document step by step. The only goal of this review is to establish a common understanding of the software architecture that will be used in a software development project.

Which of the following review types does this review refer to?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Audit

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

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Questions 72

Which of the following is an example of scenario-oriented acceptance criteria?

Options:

A.

The user should be able to provide three inputs to test the product - the Al model to be tested, the data used and an optional text file

B.

Verify that a registered user can create add a new project with name having more than 100 characters

C.

A user is already logged in then on navigating to the Al model testing page the user should be directly shown the report of last test run.

D.

An unregistered user shouldn't be shown any report

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Questions 73

Which of the following statements about static testing is true?

Options:

A.

Static testing is NOT suitable for finding coding defects. For this, dynamic testing is necessary.

B.

Static testing should be done instead of dynamic testing, as both find the same defects.

C.

Static tests are NOT suitable to evaluate the quality of work results.

D.

It makes sense to perform static testing before dynamic testing, because defects can be found earlier or at lower cost.

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Questions 74

The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the total annual amount of the sales made (referred to as TAS).

If the TAS is between 50k€ and 80k€, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k€ by a value not greater than 40k€, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS

exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.

Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k€ = 1000 euros).

Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€

B.

TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€

C.

TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€

D.

TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€

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Questions 75

To be able to define testable acceptance criteria, specific topics need to be addressed. In the table below are the topics matched to an incorrect description. Match the topics (the left column) with the correct description (the right column)

TopicDescription

Options:

A.

How the system performs the specific behaviour.

8: Quality characteristicsB: A sequence of actions between an external actor and the system, to accomplish a specific goal or business task.

B.

ScenariosC: The externally observable behaviour with user actions as input operating under certain configurations.

C.

Business rulesD; Description of the connections between the system to be developed and the outside world.

D.

External interfacesE: Activities that can only be performed in the system under certain conditions defined by outside procedures and constraints.

E.

A to C, B to A, C to B. D to E and E to D

F.

A to E, B to A, C to B, D to C and E to D

G.

A to C, B to A, C to B, D to D and E to E

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Questions 76

Out of the following. what is not needed to specify in defect report?

Options:

A.

Test environment details

B.

How to reproduce the defect

C.

How to fix the defect

D.

Seventy and priority

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Questions 77

In Agile teams, testers closely collaborate with all other team members. This close collaboration could be problematic and result in testing-related organizational risks.

Which TWO of the following organization risks could be encountered?

I.Testers lose motivation and fail at their core tasks.

ii.Close interaction with developers causes a loss of the appropriate tester mindset.

iii.Testers are not able to keep pace with incoming changes in time-constrained iterations.

iv.Testers, once they have acquired technical development or business skills, leave the testing team.

Options:

A.

ii and iii

B.

i and iii

C.

i and ii

D.

ii and iv

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Questions 78

The following 4 equivalence classes are given:

Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?

Options:

A.

-100; 100:1000; 1001

B.

-500; 0; 100; 1000

C.

-99; 99:101; 1001

D.

-1000; -100; 100; 1000

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Questions 79

Which of the following is a role that is usually responsible for documenting the findings (e.g., action items, decisions, recommendations) made by the review team as part of a typical formal review?

Options:

A.

Review leader

B.

Facilitator.

C.

Recorder.

D.

Moderator

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Questions 80

Which of the following definitions is NOT true?

Options:

A.

Test data preparation tools fill databases, create files or data transmissions to set up test data to be used during the execution of tests.

B.

Test execution tools execute test objects using automated test scripts.

C.

Test Management tools monitor and report on how a system behaves during the testing activities.

D.

Test comparators determine differences between files, databases or test results.

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Questions 81

Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

Options:

A.

Risk level is determined by calculating the absolute value of the sum of all potential issues that may occur on the project

B.

Risk level is calculated by adding the probabilities of all planned risks to a project

C.

Risk level is calculated by dividing the sum of all known risks by the sum of all unknown risks

D.

Risk level is determined by the likelihood of an event happening and the impact or harm from that event

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Questions 82

Which one of the following statements IS NOT a valid objective of testing?

Options:

A.

To build confidence in the level of quality of the test object.

B.

To find all defects in a product, ensuring the product is defect free.

C.

To find failures and defects

D.

To evaluate work products such as requirements, user stories, design, and code.

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Questions 83

A document descnbes the test procedures that have been derived for the identified test sets Among other things, the order in which the test cases in the corresponding test set are to be executed according to the dependencies described by preconditions and postconditions is specified This document is a typical work product produced as part of:

Options:

A.

Test design.

B.

Test analysis

C.

Test Implementation.

D.

Test monitoring and control

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Questions 84

Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques?

1.Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the requirements, use cases and user stories

2.Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the software architecture or code

3.Test cases can show deviations from the requirements

4.These test techniques are applicable to both functional and non-functional testing

5.Tests are based on knowledge of developers, users and other stakeholders

Black - Black-box test techniques

White * White-box test techniques

Experience - Experience-based test techniques

Options:

A.

Black -1,3.4 White - 2 Experience - 5

B.

Black - 2, 3 White -1 Experience - 4, 5

C.

Black -1,2 White - 3, 4 Experience - 5

D.

Black - 2, 3 White -1,5 Experience - 4

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Questions 85

A state transition diagram describes a control system’s behavior in different operational modes. The initial state is “NORMAL MODE”.

Which ONE of the following test cases covers an INVALID sequence?

Options:

A.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

B.

NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

C.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE

D.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE

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Questions 86

Which of the following activities are part of test planning?

I) Setting the entry and exit criteria

II) Determining the validity of bug reports

III) Determining the number of resources required

IV) Determining the expected result for test cases

Options:

A.

I. IV

B.

I. III

C.

I, III, IV

D.

I, II, IV

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Questions 87

A minimum of 0 and a maximum of 40 points can be achieved in a Certified Tester Foundation examination. With a score of 26 points to 36 points inclusive, the exam is considered "passed", with 37 points or higher it is "passed with distinction" and with less than 26 points the examination is "not passed".

Which of the following sets of positive integers fully covers a 2-value boundary value analysis ? (No values from invalid equivalence classes should be specified).

Options:

A.

0, 24, 25, 35, 36, 37, 40

B.

0, 25, 26, 36, 37, 40

C.

0, 2, 25, 26, 27, 35, 36, 37

D.

25, 26, 27, 39, 40, 41

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Questions 88

Which activity is NOT documented in a test plan?

Options:

A.

Defining the quality assurance approach

B.

Defining the test approach

C.

Selecting the metrics for test monitoring

D.

Setting the budget for the test activities

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Questions 89

You are an experienced tester on a project with incomplete requirements and under pressure to deploy.

What type of testing should you do?

Options:

A.

Decision-based testing.

B.

Checklist-based testing.

C.

Error guessing.

D.

Exploratory testing.

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Questions 90

Pariksha labs is a mature software testing company. They are TMMi level 5 certified. Their testing processes are well defined. Which ONE of the following statements is likely to be CORRECT about them?

Options:

A.

The company uses same test strategy for all the projects doing minor changes based on test manager responsible for the project because their test strategy template is very mature and do not need to change

B.

They try to perform 100% automation for every project because automation is a must for efficiency

C.

Same set of testing processes are used by them without needing any tweaks because that is the hallmark of a mature testing company.

D.

The question about the test design techniques to be used is determined based on various factors such as the domain and expectations of the stakeholders

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Questions 91

Which of the following statements refers to a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

Options:

A.

Each test level should have its own specific test objectives that should be consistent with the software development lifecycle phase or type of activities it addresses.

B.

Test analysis and design for any test levels should begin as soon as coding is complete, and all system components are available for testing

C.

The most efficient and effective method of conveying information to and within a development team is face-to-face conversation.

D.

All the tests should be automated and run as part of the continuous integration process with every software change

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Questions 92

Which ONE of the following options is NOT a test objective?

Options:

A.

Verifying whether specified requirements have been fulfilled

B.

Triggering failures and finding defects

C.

Finding errors

D.

Validating whether the test object is complete and works as expected by the stakeholders

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Questions 93

When should component integration tests be carried out?

Options:

A.

Integration tests should always be done after system tests

B.

Integration tests should be done at the customer's site, after acceptance tests

C.

Integration tests can be done before or after system tests

D.

Integration tests should always be done before system tests

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Questions 94

A system computes prices for bus tickets. The price depends on

- the passenger type (baby, child, adult, senior citizen, student, military)

- the travelling type (as single or in a group)

- the distance (zone 1. 2. 3)

- the kind of transport (ordinary, express)

Which of the following test techniques is the most appropriate one for testing the price computation?

Options:

A.

Statement coverage

B.

State transition testing

C.

Equivalence partitioning

D.

Use case testing

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Questions 95

A test manager has started a cycle of testing for an e-commerce application. The reason for testing is the change in the protocol for connecting to the payment gateway because of new regulations. Which of the following correctly names this type of testing?

Options:

A.

Beta testing

B.

Maintenance testing

C.

System integration testing

D.

Retirement testing

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Questions 96

You are a tester working on a critical project. Based on the risk analysis you execution? Priority 1 is the highest and Priority 3 is the lowest priority.

Options:

A.

D-C- B-A

B.

D-B-A-C

C.

C-B-A-D

D.

D-A-B-C

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Questions 97

Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor m determining the extent of testing required?

Options:

A.

Level of risk of the product or features

B.

Budget to do testing

C.

A particular tester involved in testing

D.

Time available to do testing

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Questions 98

Consider the following statements about risk-based testing.

I) Risk-based testing has the objective to reduce the level of protect risks.

II) Tests should be prioritized to find tie critical detects as early as possible.

III) Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk

IV) Risks have to be reassessed on a regular basis.

V) The project stakeholders can give useful input to determine the risks

Options:

A.

I III IV and V are true. II is false.

B.

II, III IV and V are correct. I is false.

C.

C. I, II and IV are true. III and V are false.

D.

II, Ill and V are true. 1 ants Iv are false.

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Questions 99

Which of the following statements does NOT describe good testing practice, regardless of the SDLC chosen?

Options:

A.

All development activities are subject to quality control.

B.

To avoid redundancy, different test levels have specific test objectives.

C.

To adhere to the principle of early testing, test analysis for a specific test level takes place during the corresponding phase of the SDLC.

D.

Testers are involved in the review of work results as soon as the documents have been approved by the stakeholders.

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Questions 100

Which of the following is an advantage of the whole team approach?

Options:

A.

It helps avoid the risk of tasks associated with a user story not moving through the Agile task board at an acceptable rate during an iteration.

B.

It helps team members understand the current status of an iteration by visualising the amount of work left to do compared to the time allotted for the iteration

C.

It helps the whole team be more effective in test case design by requiring all team members to master all types of test techniques.

D.

It helps team members develop better relationships with each other and make their collaboration more effective for the benefit of the project.

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Questions 101

Which of the following types of bugs are more likely to be found by static testing then by dynamic testing?

Options:

A.

Functions that take much longer time to complete than expected

B.

Variables that were declared in the code without initialization

C.

Crashes of the application

D.

A sub-system that does not perform the intended functionality

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Questions 102

Which of the following activities is NOT a pan of the fundamental testing process?

Options:

A.

Archiving automation code

B.

Test status reporting

C.

Test process improvement

D.

Build release and maintenance

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Questions 103

You are testing a system that is used in motor vehicles to warn the driver of an obstacle when re-versing. Output is provided by a series of LED lights (green, yellow, and red), each illuminated based on clearly defined conditions.

The following summary describes the functionality:

•Object within 10 metres, green LED lit.

•Object within 5 metres, yellow LED lit.

•Object within 1 metre, red LED lit.

•Setting sensitivity mode to "ON" will result in only the red LED being lit when the object is within 1 metre.

The following decision table describes the rules associated with the functioning of this proximity warning system:

Which intended functionality is tested by Rule 5 in the decision table?

Options:

A.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "off", resulting in the yellow LED being lit.

B.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "on", resulting in the yellow LED being lit.

C.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "off", resulting in no LED being lit.

D.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "on", resulting in no LED being lit.

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Questions 104

Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT example of the purpose of a test plan?

Options:

A.

A test lead decides to write a detailed test plan so that in future, in case of project failure responsibilities could be assigned to the right person

B.

A test manager should always create a very simple test plan because the purpose of test plan is to ensure that there is documentation for the purpose of audits.

C.

A test plan is a good document to have for the agile projects because it helps the test manager assign tasks to different people

D.

A test manager decides to create a one page test plan for an agile project for communicating the broad activities and explaining why detailed test cases will not be written as mandated by the test policy.

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Questions 105

Why it is essential that defects found in a review be reported objectively?

Options:

A.

In order to facilitate easy entry of detected defects in a OTS (Defect Tracking System)

B.

In order to allow the author of reviewed work product(S) to take the feedback positively as an effort at improving the product (S) and not as a personal assault

C.

In order to allow the review moderator to easily understand them, and assign them to the right developer for fixing

D.

In order to allow augmentation of existing checklists used for reviewing the work product (S)

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Questions 106

You are performing the role of tester on an Agile project. Which of the following tasks would be your responsibility?

i. Understanding, implementing, and updating the test strategy.

II. Ensuring the proper use of testing tools.

Hi. Coaching other team members in the relevant aspects of testing.

iv. Actively collaborating with developers and business stakeholders to clarify requirements, especially in terms of testability, consistency, and completeness.

v. Participating proactively in team retrospective meeting, suggesting and implementing improvements.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

i, iv and v

B.

i, ii and iii

C.

i, iii and v

D.

iii. iv and v

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Questions 107

Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?

Options:

A.

Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)

B.

Potentially endless loops

C.

Referencing a variable with an undefined value

D.

Security vulnerabilities

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Questions 108

Which of the following statements about Experience Based Techniques (EBT) is correct?

Options:

A.

EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies.

B.

EBT is based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques.

C.

EBT is done as a second stage of testing, after non-experienced-based testing took place.

D.

EBT require broad and deep knowledge in testing but not necessarily in the application or technological domain.

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Questions 109

Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect?

Options:

A.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1

B.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3

C.

S0->S1->S2~>S3->S4

D.

S0->S1 ->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4

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Questions 110

Which of the following is a typical potential risk of using test automation tools?

Options:

A.

Reduced feedback times regarding software quality compared to manual testing.

B.

Reduced test execution limes compared to manual testing.

C.

Reduced repeatability and consistency of tests compared to manual testing

D.

Underestimation of effort required to maintain test scripts.

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Questions 111

As a result of the joint evaluation of a product version with the customer, it has been concluded that it would be appropriate to retrieve an earlier version of the product and carry out a benchmark. Depending on the result, further development will be carried out based on the current version or the retrieved version.

Which mechanism, process, and/or technique will allow the specific version (including the testing work products) of a given software product to be restored?

Options:

A.

Defect management

B.

Configuration management

C.

Change management

D.

Risk management

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Questions 112

Which of the following statements about white-box test techniques is true?

Options:

A.

Achieving full statement coverage and full branch coverage for a software product means that such software product has been fully tested and there are no remaining bugs within the code

B.

Code-related white-box test techniques are not required to measure the actual code coverage achieved by black-box testing, as code coverage can be measured using the coverage criteria associated with black-box test techniques

C.

Branch coverage is the most thorough code-related white-box test technique, and therefore applicable standards prescribe achieving full branch coverage at the highest safety levels for safety-critical systems

D.

Code-related white-box test techniques provide an objective measure of coverage and can be used to complement black-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code

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Questions 113

Which of the following best describes the way in which statement coverage is measured?

Options:

A.

Measured as the number of decision outcomes executed by the tests, divided by the total number of decision outcomes in the test object.

B.

It is not possible to accurately measure statement coverage.

C.

Measured as the number of statements executed by the tests, divided by the total number of executable statements in the code.

D.

Measured as the number of lines of code executed by the test, divided by the total number of lines of code in the test object.

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Questions 114

Consider the following list of possible benefits of retrospectives (A to D):

Options:

A.

Team bonding and learning

B.

Increased test effectiveness/efficiency

C.

Improved quality of the test basis

D.

Better cooperation between development and testing

... and the list of possible characteristics of retrospectives (1 to 4) that enable achieving these benefits:

The possibility of implementing suggestions for process improvement

The opportunity to raise problems and propose points for improvement

The regular review and optimization of the collaboration between team members

The possibility of addressing and solv

E.

A1 - B4 - C3 - D2

F.

A2 - B1 - C4 - D3

G.

A4 - B3 - C2 - D1

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Questions 115

Given the following review process main activities and specific review activities:

a.Planning

b.Initiate review

c.Issue communication and analysis

d.Fixing and reporting

1.Creating defect reports

2.Estimating effort and timeframe

3.Recording updated status of defects

4.Selecting the people to participate

5.Distributing the work product and other material

6.Evaluating the review findings

Which of the following BEST matches the review process main activities with the appropriate specific review activities?

Options:

A.

2-a, 4-a, 5-b, 6-c, 1-d, 3-d

B.

2-a, 5-a, 1-b, 4-b, 3-c, 6-d

C.

1-a, 4-b, 5-b, 6-c, 2-d, 3-d

D.

2-a, 4-b, 5-c, 1-d. 3-d, 6-d

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Questions 116

A class grade application for instructors assigns letter grades based on students' numerical grades.

The letter grades for different numerical grades should be:

Above 89, up to 100 - A

Above 79, up to 89 • B

Above 69, up to 79 • C

Above 59, up to 69 - D

Below 60- F

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the relatively highest equivalence partition coverage?

Options:

A.

0, 58.59,70, 80

B.

74, 79.84,85, 89

C.

79, 89.90,99, 100

D.

69, 79. 80, 89, 90

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Questions 117

Which of the following statements about retrospectives is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Only developers and testers should be involved in retrospectives, as involving people in other roles is very likely to prevent developers and testers from having open and constructive discussions that really help identify process improvements.

B.

Retrospectives can be very effective in identifying process improvements and can also be very efficient and cost-effective especially since, unlike reviews, they do not require any follow-up activities

C.

On Agile projects, well-conducted retrospectives at the end of each iteration can help the team reduce and sometimes even eliminate the need for dairy stand-up meetings.

D.

During retrospectives, in addition to identifying relevant process improvements, participants should also consider how to implement these improvements and retain them based on the context of the project, such as the software development lifecycle.

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Questions 118

An application is subjected to a constant load for an extended period of time as part of a performance test While running this test, the response time of the application steadily slows down, which results in a requirement not being met This slowdown is caused by a memory leak where the application code does not properly release some of the dynamically allocated memory when it is no longer needed. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The slowdown is a failure while the memory leak is a defect

B.

The slowdown is a defect while the memory leak is an error.

C.

The slowdown is an error; the memory leak is a defect.

D.

The slowdown is a defect; the memory leak is a failure.

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Questions 119

Which of the following about typical information found within a test plan is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The need to temporarily have additional test personnel available for specific test phases and/or test activities

B.

The conditions that must be met in order for the test execution activities to be considered completed.

C.

The list of the product risks which have not been fully mitigated at the end of test execution.

D.

The conditions that must be met for part of all the planned activities to be suspended and resumed.

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Questions 120

Why should you choose a test technique?

Options:

A.

Because you need to match the way you test to the content of the product under test

B.

Because of the time constraints that usually accompany a test project

C.

Because this way you cover the full scope of the product's functionality

D.

Because choosing a test technique is a common practice in software testing

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Questions 121

A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.

Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?

Options:

A.

Code coverage

B.

Data flow coverage

C.

Statement coverage

D.

Branch Coverage

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Exam Code: ISTQB-CTFL
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0)
Last Update: Nov 19, 2025
Questions: 406
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