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CTFL_Syll_4.0 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (used for questions 20-22):

An intelligent application for agricultural use incorporates temperature sensors located at different points of an enclosure. The sensors measure and record the temperature at regular intervals and extract the statistical values for these measurements. These values include the average daily temperature.

A new variety of tomatoes is currently being grown and the“World Organization for Happy Tomatoes”has established temperature ranges related to vegetative development.

When the system establishes that the average temperature is within a specific range, it emits a value that will be used to monitor and control the crop.

Using theequivalence partitioningtechnique, identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

Options:

A.

{7,10,21,40}

B.

{8,10,25,40}

C.

{7,10,25,29}

D.

{7,10,25,40}

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Questions 5

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY used to guide testing duringexploratory testing?

Options:

A.

A test charter that defines the testing objectives for the test session.

B.

A comprehensive specification that must be fully available before testing begins.

C.

A detailed test script that prescribes all the steps to be performed.

D.

A predefined test case that must be executed exactly as documented.

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Questions 6

Which of the following is a good testing practice which is applicable INDEPENDENT of the software development lifecycle followed?

Options:

A.

Not all development activities should have corresponding test activities

B.

Each test level should have an appropriate test objective

C.

Reviews should be done after the work products have been finalized

D.

Large amount of redundancy between test levels is good because it prevents bug leakage

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Questions 7

Consider an estimation session where a six-member Agile team (Memb1, ... , Memb6) is performing a planning poker session to estimate a user story (in story points). Team

members are using a set of cards with the following values: 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21. Below is the outcome produced by the first round of estimation for this session:

Which of the following answers best describes how the estimation session should proceed?

Options:

A.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined as the arithmetic mean of all the estimates made by the team members during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation

B.

The final estimation of the user story in story points is determined as the most frequent estimate value among those selected by the team members (in this case 3 story points chosen by Memb1, Memb2, Memb3, Memb5) during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation

C.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined as the arithmetic mean of the most optimistic estimate (chosen by Memb6) and the most pessimistic estimate (chosen by Memb4) during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation

D.

Memb4 and Memb6, which have produced the most pessimistic and the most optimistic estimates respectively, should explain the reasons of their choices to stimulate a discussion between all team members before to proceed to another round of estimation

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Questions 8

As a result of the joint evaluation of a product version with the customer, it has been concluded that it would be appropriate to retrieve an earlier version of the product and carry out a benchmark. Depending on the result, further development will be carried out based on the current version or the retrieved version.

Which mechanism, process, and/or technique will allow the specific version (including the testing work products) of a given software product to be restored?

Options:

A.

Defect management

B.

Configuration management

C.

Change management

D.

Risk management

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Questions 9

Consider an estimation session in which a six-member Agile team (Membl,..., Memb6) uses the planning poker technique to estimate a user story (in story points). The team members will use a set of cards with the following values: 1. 2, 3, 5, 8,13, 21. Below is the outcome of the first round of estimation for this session:

Membl = 3 Memb2 = 3 Memb3 = 3

Memb4 = 21 Memb5 = 3 Memb6 = 1

Which of the following answers best describes how the estimation session should proceed?

Options:

A.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by applying the three-point estimation technique with the following input values: most optimistic estimate = 1, most likely estimate = 3, and most pessimistic estimate = 21

B.

Further estimation rounds should be performed until all team members will pick the card having the same value: this value will represent the final estimate of the user story in story points

C.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by calculating the average value between the most optimistic estimate of 21 story points (Memb4) and the most pessimistic estimate of 1 story point (Memb6)

D.

Memb6 and Memb4 which have produced the most pessimistic and the most optimistic estimates respectively, should explain the reasons of their choices to stimulate a discussion between all members before to proceed to another estimation round

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Questions 10

The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:

1. Component (unit) testing

2. Integration testing

3. System testing

4. Acceptance testing

An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test

B.

It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.

C.

It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means definite poor product quality

D.

It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model

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Questions 11

An e-commerce site accepts credit cards for processing the payment. The payment processing form has a field for the amount of money to be deducted. The minimum amount of money that can be processed is $10. The credit cards have a limit of $5,000 (Five Thousand). Assume that only integers can be accepted as inputs. Which of the following set of boundary values you will choose for EFFICIENT testing for the amount of money that can be spent?

Options:

A.

9,5001

B.

10,5000

C.

9,10,11,4999,5000,5001

D.

9,10,5000,5001

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Questions 12

A test manager decided to skip static testing since he believes bugs can be found easily by doing dynamic testing. Was this decision right or wrong?

Options:

A.

The decision was wrong. Ensuring quality mandates that static testing is performed after performing the dynamic testing.

B.

The decision was right. Static testing is usually redundant if a product is planned to go through a full-cycle of dynamic testing.

C.

The decision was right. Most of the bugs are easier to identify during the dynamic testing.

D.

The decision was wrong. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, reducing the overall cost of testing and development

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Questions 13

Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality?

Options:

A.

A test leader writes a test summary report

B.

A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort

C.

A tester installs a test ten in the lest environment

D.

A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release

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Questions 14

An agile software development organization has recently hired a senior tester. The organization has distributed teams spread across time zones. They need to share test status with various stakeholders including upper management and customers at a regular interval. Which of the following statements seems to be correct with regards to the communication?

Options:

A.

Since the stakeholders include upper management, formal reports delivered face-to-face are critical.

B.

Distributed nature of teams working in various time zones means email communication will work better.

C.

Agile nature of the project means very less documentation and hence the status need not be documented and shared in a formal manner

D.

Since the stakeholders include customers frequent informal communication without a specific frequency works better.

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Questions 15

Which of the following answers describes a reason for adopting experience-based testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Experience-based test techniques provide more systematic coverage criteria than black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Experience-based test techniques completely rely on the tester's past experience for designing test cases

C.

Experience-based test techniques allow designing test cases that are usually easier to reproduce than those designed with black-box and white-box test techniques

D.

Experience-based test techniques tend to find defects that may be difficult to find with black-box and white-box test techniques and are often useful to complement these more systematic techniques

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Questions 16

For each of the test cases to be executed, the following table specifies the priority order and dependencies on other test cases

Which of the following test execution schedules is compatible with the logical dependencies and allows executing the test cases in priority order?

Options:

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC5. TC1

B.

TC4, TC6, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1

C.

TC3, TC5, TC6, TC1, TC4, TC3

D.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC1, TC5

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Questions 17

Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?

Options:

A.

Can't be determined

B.

Covering all transitions at least once

C.

Covering only start and end states

D.

Covering all states at least once

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Questions 18

Match the Work Product with the category it belongs to:

Work Product:

1.Risk register

2.Risk information

3.Test cases

4.Test conditions

Category of work products:

Options:

A.

Test planning work products

B.

Test analysis work products.

C.

Test design work products

D.

Test monitoring and control work products

E.

1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

F.

1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D

G.

1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B

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Questions 19

For each test case to be executed, the following table specifies its dependencies and the required configuration of the test environment for running such test case:

Assume that CONF1 is the initial configuration of the test environment. Based on this assumption, which of the following is a test execution schedule that is compatible with the specified dependencies and allows minimizing the number of switches between the different configurations of the test environment?

Options:

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1.TC5

B.

TC1.TC5.TC4. TC3, TC2

C.

TC4, TC3. TC2, TC5, TC1

D.

TC4.TC1, TC5. TC2.TC3

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Questions 20

A requirement specifies that a certain identifier (ID) must be between 5 and 10 characters long, must contain only alphanumeric characters, and its first character must be a letter. As a tester, you want to apply one-dimensional equivalence partitioning to test this ID. This means that you have to apply equivalence partitioning individually: to the length of the ID, the type of characters contained within the ID, and the type of the first character of the ID.

What is the number of partitions to cover?

Options:

A.

7

B.

6

C.

5

D.

3

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Questions 21

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

User acceptance tests are usually automated and aim to verify the acceptance criteria for user stories

B.

Acceptance criteria for user stories can include details on data definitions, for example by describing the format, allowed values, and default values for a data item

C.

Acceptance criteria for user stories should focus on positive scenarios, while negative scenarios should be excluded

D.

Tests derived from acceptance criteria for user stories are not included in any of the four testing quadrants

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Questions 22

The following chart represents metrics related to testing of a project that was competed. Indicate what is represented by tie lines A, B and the axes X.Y

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 23

Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects:

[I]. The contrast color ratio for both normal text and large text of a website does not comply with the applicable accessibility guidelines, making it difficult for many users to read the content on the pages

[II]. A development vendor fails to deliver their software system on time, causing significant delays to system integration testing activities that have been planned as part of a development project for a system of systems

[III]. People in the test team do not have sufficient skills to automate tests at the test levels required by the test automation strategy which does not allow production of an effective regression test suite

[IV]. In a web application, data from untrusted sources is not subject to proper input validation, making the application vulnerable to several security attacks

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

[I] and [III] are product risks; [II] and [IV] are project risks

B.

[I] and [IV] are product risks. [II] and [III] are project risks

C.

[II], [III] and [IV] are product risks; [I] is a project risk

D.

[IV] is a product risk; [I]. [II] and [III] are project risks

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Questions 24

A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.

Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?

Options:

A.

It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.

B.

It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it

C.

It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests

D.

It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product

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Questions 25

Test automation allows you to:

Options:

A.

demonstrate the absence of defects

B.

produce tests that are less subject to human errors

C.

avoid performing exploratory testing

D.

increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects

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Questions 26

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

Testing the software under test (SUT) based on the design is black-box testing whereas testing the input-output behaviour is experience based testing.

B.

Testing the software under test (SUT) is possible only after implementation in white-box testing whereas testing the software even before implementation is possible in exploratory testing.

C.

Testing the software under test (SUT) using knowledge of the tester is experience based testing whereas testing the specification based behaviour without pre-written test cases is using black-box testing techniques.

D.

Testing based on the structure of the software under test (SUT) is white-box testing whereas testing the input-output behaviour without pre-written test cases is experience based testing.

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Questions 27

Which of the following statements about statement coverage is true?

Options:

A.

Achieving 90% statement coverage ensures that 90% branch coverage is achieved

B.

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that no variable within the code has been used without being initialized

C.

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that 100% branch coverage is achieved

D.

Achieving 80% statement coverage ensures that 80% of all executable statements within the code have been exercised

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Questions 28

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes thethird test quadrant (Q3)?

Options:

A.

This test quadrant contains smoke tests and non-functional tests (except usability tests). These tests are often automated.

B.

This test quadrant is business-facing and criticizes the system. It contains exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing.

C.

This test quadrant contains functional tests, examples, user story tests, user experience prototypes, API testing, and simulations. These tests check the acceptance criteria and can be manual or automated.

D.

This test quadrant is technology-facing and supports the team. These tests should be automated and included in the continuous integration (CI) process.

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Questions 29

Determining the schedule for each testing activity and test milestones for a test project, using activity estimates, available resources, and other constraints is a typical task performed during:

Options:

A.

test execution

B.

test design

C.

test analysis

D.

test planning

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Questions 30

A state transition diagram describes a control system’s behavior in different operational modes. The initial state is“NORMAL MODE”.

Which ONE of the following test cases covers anINVALID sequence?

Options:

A.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

B.

NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

C.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE

D.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE

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Questions 31

Which ONE of the following options is a practice that does NOT TYPICALLY correspond to a shift left approach?

Options:

A.

Using continuous integration (CI) and even better continuous delivery (CD).

B.

Reviewing the specification from the perspective of testing.

C.

Write the test cases before writing the code and run the code in a test harness during code implementation.

D.

Performing non-functional testing starting at the system test level.

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Questions 32

Which ONE of the following options corresponds to an activity in the testing process in which testable features are identified?

Options:

A.

Test design

B.

Test analysis

C.

Test implementation

D.

Test execution

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Questions 33

Consider the followinguser storyand itsacceptance criteria:

User Story:

As a member of the"Agnotoly"association, I want to be able topay the association’s dues through an automatic payment methodso that I can forget about payment deadlines.

Acceptance Criteria:

    The member can only pay with‘Agnesis Master’ credit card.

    The member must register theircell phone number.

    The member must register thecredit cardin the payment system.

    The member must select apayment method (monthly or annual).

    The member mustaccept the terms and conditionsfor the selected method.

    If terms and conditions are accepted, the system sends anOTP(one-time password) to the member’s phone for verification.

    The payment method isregistered only after OTP verification.

    Once the payment method is registered, the system will charge on the first business day of the following month.

Test Cycle Results:

    Members successfully paid dues using the credit card.

    Payments were processedmonthly and for over a year.

Which ONE of the following options identifies the acceptance criteria that has NOT been fully covered?

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria 8 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

B.

Acceptance criteria 4 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

C.

All acceptance criteria have been fully covered during the above test cycle.

D.

Acceptance criteria 6 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

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Questions 34

Which ONE of the following options isNOTa benefit oftest automation?

Options:

A.

Reduced test execution times

B.

More objective assessment

C.

Prevention of simple human errors

D.

Eliminating completely the need for manual testing

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Questions 35

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about error guessing?

Options:

A.

While reviewing the test cases, testers have to make guess about the kind of mistakes test cases might contain

B.

Error guessing doesn't make use of past failures as past failures are not indicators of correct defects

C.

Fault attacks are an example of a technique for implementing error guessing.

D.

Error guessing depends on the developers guessing what mistakes testers might make and miss the possible defects

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Questions 36

After being in operation for many years, a document management system must be decommissioned as it has reached its end of life. This system will not be replaced by any other new system. A legal obligation provides that all documents within the system must be kept for at least 20 years in a state archive.

Which of the following statements about maintenance testing for decommissioning of this system is true?

Options:

A.

No maintenance testing is required as this system will not be replaced

B.

Data migration testing is required as part of maintenance testing

C.

Confirmation testing is required as part of maintenance testing

D.

Regression testing is required as part of maintenance testing

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Questions 37

Which of the following is a test task that usually occurs during test implementation?

Options:

A.

Make sure the planned test environment is ready to be delivered

B.

Find, analyze, and remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the tests

C.

Archive the testware for use in future test projects

D.

Gather the metrics that are used to guide the test project

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Questions 38

Which of the following statements about how different types of test tools support testers is true?

Options:

A.

The support offered by a test data preparation tool is often leveraged by testers to run automated regression test suites

B.

The support offered by a performance testing tool is often leveraged by testers to run load tests

C.

The support offered by a bug prediction tool is often used by testers to track the bugs they found

D.

The support offered by a continuous integration tool is often leveraged by testers to automatically generate test cases from a model

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Questions 39

Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?

Options:

A.

All participants to the review will be evaluated based on the defects they will find

B.

The author of the work product to be reviewed leads the review meeting

C.

All participants to the review are trained to deal with the review type and its objectives

D.

Review metrics must be collected to improve the review process

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Questions 40

Which ONE of the following options CANNOT be subjected to static analysis?

Options:

A.

COTS (Commercial off-the-shelf)

B.

Source code

C.

BPMN (Business Process Modeling and Notation) models

D.

UML (Unified Modeling Language) models

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Questions 41

Which ONE of the following statements about maintenance testing is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

Maintenance testing is performed exclusively for adaptive maintenance.

B.

Maintenance testing is only required when defects are reported in production.

C.

Maintenance testing should be performed when enhancements, fixes, or updates are applied to an existing system.

D.

Maintenance testing does not require test cases since it focuses solely on defect verification.

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Questions 42

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY part of atest plan?

Options:

A.

The budget and schedule for the test project.

B.

A detailed analysis of the defects found and their causes.

C.

A detailed report on the test results after the test project is completed.

D.

A list of test logs from the test execution.

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Questions 43

Which of the following is NOT a typical debugging activity when a failure is triggered by dynamic testing?

Options:

A.

Reproducing the failure

B.

Adding new test cases

C.

Fixing the cause

D.

Diagnosing the root cause

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Questions 44

Which of the following statements about the testing quadrants is true?

Options:

A.

The higher the number of the testing quadrant, the more important the tests associated with this quadrant are

B.

Automated acceptance tests produced during BDD and ATDD are classified in quadrant Q2

C.

Exploratory tests are classified in quadrant Q3. and they are usually included in a continuous integration process

D.

Automated unit tests produced during TDD are classified in quadrant Q4 as they are technology facing

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Questions 45

A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts (aimed at testing the system under test) that interact with that service, are test work products that are typically created during:

Options:

A.

Test monitoring and control

B.

Test implementation

C.

Test design

D.

Test analysis

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Questions 46

What is test oracle?

Options:

A.

The source of lest objectives

B.

The source for the actual results

C.

The source of expected results

D.

The source of input conditions

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Questions 47

Which of the following IS the BEST example of whole team approach

Options:

A.

Testing is the responsibility of the entire team

B.

Sharing same physical workspace is a must

C.

Developers should depend on the business analysts as there is no distinction between testers and developers

D.

Anyone can perform a task they are capable of

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Questions 48

Which of the following statements about branch coverage is true?

Options:

A.

The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually lower than that needed to achieve full statement coverage

B.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have surely been exercised

C.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have surely been exercised

D.

Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage

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Questions 49

Shripriya is defining the guidelines for the review process implementation in her company. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to have been recommended by her?

Options:

A.

Independent of the size of the work products, planning for the review should be performed

B.

Review initiation is the stage when the review team starts the discussion on the review comments

C.

Large sized work products should be reviewed in one go because you will have to spend too much time if you split it into multiple reviews.

D.

Defect reports should be created for every review found

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Questions 50

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique:

Options:

A.

Where a developer and a tester work together on the same workstation: while the developer actively writes code, the tester explores the code to find defects

B.

That can be organized into sessions guided by test charters outlining test objectives that will guide the testers' exploration

C.

Where a team of testers explores all possible test techniques in order to determine the most suitable combination of these techniques to apply for a test project

D.

That aims at finding defects by designing tests that exercise all possible combinations of input values and preconditions

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Questions 51

Consider the following defect report for an Exam Booking System

Defect ID: ST1041 | Title: Unable to cancel an exam booking | Severity: Very High | Priority: Very High | Environment: Windows 10, Firefox

Description: When attempting to cancel an exam booking using the cancel exam feature, the system does not cancel the exam even though it shows a message that the exam has been cancelled.

Which ONE of the following indicates the information that should be added to the description for reproducing the defect easily?

Options:

A.

Repeating the test case with different browsers and logging a separate defect for each one of them

B.

Providing exact steps that lead to this defect. It is not clear from the description if this is a problem for any scheduled exam or for a specific user.

C.

Providing better severity and priority. It is not clear why this is a high severity problem as the exams can be booked without any problem.

D.

The defect Id used is alphanumeric in nature. It should be a number only.

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Questions 52

Which of the following is LEAST likely to describe a task performed by someone in a testing role?

Options:

A.

Evaluate test basis and test object

B.

Create test completion report

C.

Assess testability of test object

D.

Define test environment requirements

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Questions 53

Which sequence of state transitions is INCORRECT in accordance with the following description?

To provide for disaster recovery a system (designated as A) has been provided with a backup system (designated as B). Only one of them can be active at a time. When A goes down, B becomes active. When A comes back up then B becomes inactive and A becomes active again. However, when A is down and B also goes down then a message is sent to the system administrator. After this once A comes back up, A becomes active or if B comes up then B becomes Active.

Options:

A.

A and B are both down then A and B both come back up at the same time. A should become the active system and B should be inactive

B.

A is active and B is inactive. A goes down. B becomes active then B goes down. A is made active

C.

A is active and B is inactive then A goes down, B becomes active.

D.

A comes up when B is active and A was down. Now A becomes active and B becomes inactive.

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Questions 54

Given some statements about independence of testing

i.Independence is a replacement for familiarity with the code

ii.Independence helps remove the biases produced because of own work

iii.Similar kind of failures can be detected by anyone

iv.Assumptions by different people are different revealing weaknesses Which of the following CORRECTLY represents the benefits?

Options:

A.

ii and iv

B.

i and iv

C.

i and iii

D.

iii and iv

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Questions 55

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLYNOTpart of atest progress report?

Options:

A.

Obstacles and their workarounds

B.

A detailed assessment of product quality

C.

Test metrics to show the current status of the test process

D.

New or changed risks

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Questions 56

Consider the following list of possible benefits of retrospectives (A to D):

Options:

A.

Team bonding and learning

B.

Increased test effectiveness/efficiency

C.

Improved quality of the test basis

D.

Better cooperation between development and testing

... and the list of possible characteristics of retrospectives (1 to 4) that enable achieving these benefits:

The possibility of implementing suggestions for process improvement

The opportunity to raise problems and propose points for improvement

The regular review and optimization of the collaboration between team members

The possibility of addressing and solv

E.

A1 - B4 - C3 - D2

F.

A2 - B1 - C4 - D3

G.

A4 - B3 - C2 - D1

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Questions 57

Which of the following is an example of scenario-oriented acceptance criteria?

Options:

A.

Verify that a registered user can create add a new project with name having more than 100 characters

B.

An unregistered user shouldn't be shown any report.

C.

The user should be able to provide three inputs to test the product - the Al model to be tested, the data used and an optional text file

D.

A user is already logged in then on navigating to the Al model testing page the user should be directly shown the report of last test run.

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Questions 58

Which ONE of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

Static analysis can be used against a work product containing unstructured artifacts

B.

Test cases can be tested using static testing techniques but not the models

C.

There may be legal issues in performing static testing on a commercially available executable library.

D.

Difficult to interpret work products are best tested using static analysis.

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Questions 59

Which ONE of the following options BEST characterizes the Behavior-Driven Development (BDD) approach?

Options:

A.

Derives tests from acceptance criteria as part of the system design process. Tests are written before the part of the application is developed to satisfy the tests. Tests may persist as automated tests to ensure the code quality in future adaptions/refactoring.

B.

Expresses the desired behavior of an application with test cases written in a simple form of natural language that is easy to understand by stakeholders—usually using the Given/When/Then format. Test cases are then automatically translated into executable tests.

C.

Expresses the desired behavior of an application with test cases written in a simple form of natural language that is easy to understand by stakeholders—usually using the Preconditions/Input Values/Process/Output Values/Postconditions format. Test cases are then automatically translated into executable tests.

D.

Derives tests from acceptance criteria as part of the system design process. Tests are written before the part of the application is developed to satisfy the tests. Tests will persist as automated tests to ensure code maintainability in future adaptions/refactoring.

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Questions 60

Which of the following is not an example of a typical content of a test completion report for a test project?

Options:

A.

The additional effort spent on test execution compared to what was planned

B.

The unexpected test environment downtime that resulted in slower test execution

C.

The residual risk level if a risk-based test approach was adopted

D.

The test procedures of all test cases that have been executed

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Exam Code: CTFL_Syll_4.0
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0
Last Update: Jun 29, 2025
Questions: 200
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