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IIA-CIA-Part2 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

When presenting an observation m writing which or the Mowing is usually true regarding the level of detail provided?

1. The description of the observation in the final audit report contains more detail then the description m the engagement workpapers

2. The description of the observation m the engagement workpapers contains more detail than the descriptor n a preliminary observation document

3. A preliminary observation document contains more detail than tie observation description in the final audit report

4. A preliminary observation document contains more detail than tie observation description in the engagement workpapers

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and3

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 5

Besides a chief audit executive's professional experience what determines the frequency and approach to assessing residual risk?

Options:

A.

The frequency of executing the internal audit engagements

B.

The frequency of changes in the organization environment

C.

The expectations set by the board and senior management

D.

The expectations set by operating management and senior management

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Questions 6

Which of the following actions should the chief audit executive take when senior management decides to accept risks by choosing to do business with a questionable vendor?

Options:

A.

Persuade senior management to take appropriate action.

B.

Cancel issuing the engagement report due to the assumed risks.

C.

Accept senior management’s assumption of the risks.

D.

Discuss the issue with the board for them to take appropriate action.

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Questions 7

In a health care organization the internal audit activity provides overall assurance on governance, risk and control The chief audit executive advises and influences senior management, and the audit strategy leverages the organization's management of risk According to HA guidance which of the following stages of internal audit maturity best describes this organization?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure.

B.

Emerging.

C.

Managed.

D.

Initial.

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Questions 8

An examination of the accounts payable function evidenced multiple findings with respect to segregation of duties. After management's response and action plan are received and documented in the final report, which of the following is most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Follow up after the applicable changes have been incorporated to validate management’s response.

B.

Include the items in the scope of the next scheduled audit of the accounts payable function.

C.

Because management agreed with the findings, no further action is deemed necessary.

D.

Have an internal audit staff member placed into the accounting department until corrections are made.

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Questions 9

Which of the following internal audit activities is performed in the design evaluation phase?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor reviews prior audits and workpapers.

B.

The internal auditor identifies the controls over segregation of duties.

C.

The internal auditor checks a process for completeness.

D.

The internal auditor communicates the audit results to management.

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Questions 10

During a review of data privacy an internal auditor is tasked with testing management's identification and prioritization of critical data collected by the organization. Which of the following steps would accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

interview management to determine what types of data are collected and maintained

B.

Trace data from storage to the collection sources to determine how critical data is collected and organized

C.

Review a sample of data to determine whether the risk classification is reasonable

D.

Document and test a data inventory and classification program by determining the data classification levels and framework

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Questions 11

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is false regarding a review of the controls in place to prevent fraud?

Options:

A.

The review should focus on the efficiency of the controls in place to prevent fraud.

B.

The scope of the review does not need to include all operating areas of the organization.

C.

The cost of the control should be compared to the benefit of mitigating the related risk.

D.

The review should assess whether the internal controls can be circumvented.

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Questions 12

According to IIA guidance, when of the Mowing statements is true regarding an engagement supervisor's use of review notes?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor's review notes should be retained m the final documental or even after they are addressed.

B.

The engagement supervisor's review notes cannot be used as evidence of engagement supervision

C.

The engagement supervisor's review notes could be cleared from all final documentation after they are addressed

D.

The engagement supervisor's review notes must be maintained in a checklist separate from tie final documentation

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Questions 13

Which of the following statements about internal audit's follow-up process is true?

Options:

A.

The nature, timing, and extent of follow-up for assurance engagements is standardized to ensure quality performance.

B.

The actions of external auditors and other external assurance providers is not encompassed by internal audit's follow-up process.

C.

Internal auditors have responsibility for determining if management and the board have implemented the recommended action or otherwise accepted the risk.

D.

The follow-up process must be complete and documented in the working papers in order to conclude the engagement.

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Questions 14

Which of the following is the most appropriate approach for the internal audit activity to follow up on management action plans?

Options:

A.

Create a tracking system for follow up

B.

Ensure that follow-up activities are performed at least weekly.

C.

Delegate follow-up activities to qualified administrative staff within the business unit

D.

Ensure that follow-up activities are performed by the most senior auditor on staff

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Questions 15

The following is a list of major findings in the executive summary report for an audit of the contract management process

- Noncompliance with contract provisions requiring vendors to obtain insurance policies with indemnity value of not less than $1 million

- Compliance with contract obligations and deliverables is not monitored

- No contract agreement with five vendors providing core services

Which of the following is an appropriate conclusion that can be drawn from these findings?

Options:

A.

These are weaknesses resulting from a lack of a documented contracting policy

B.

Substandard service delivery by vendors may not be detected

C.

Management should expedite actions to rectify the observations identified

D.

The internal controls guiding contract management are not operating effectively

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Questions 16

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is least likely to be a key financial control in an organization's accounts payable process?

Options:

A.

Require the approval of additions and changes to the vendor master listing, where the inherent risk of false vendors is high.

B.

Monitor amounts paid each period and compare them to the budget to identify potential issues.

C.

Compare employee addresses to vendor addresses to identify potential employee fraud.

D.

Monitor customer quality complaints compared to the prior period to identify vendor issues.

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Questions 17

Which of the following engagement techniques would be best to meet the objective of denting a personal conflict -of -interest situation affecting an organization’s procurement function?

Options:

A.

Inquiry

B.

Analytical review

C.

Observation

D.

Inspection of documents

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Questions 18

Which of the following recommendations made by the internal audit activity (IAA) is most likely to help prevent fraud?

Options:

A.

A review of password policy compliance found that employees frequently use the same password more than once during a year. The IAA recommends that the access control software reject any password used more than once during a 12-month period.

B.

A review of internal service-level agreement compliance in financial services found that requests for information frequently are fulfilled up to two weeks late. The IAA recommends that the financial services unit be eliminated for its ineffectiveness.

C.

A vacation policy compliance review found that employees frequently leave on vacation before their leave applications are signed by their manager. The IAA recommends that the manager attend to the leave applications in a more timely fashion.

D.

A review of customer service-level agreements found that orders to several customers are frequently delivered late. The IAA recommends that the organization extend the expected delivery time advertised on its website.

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Questions 19

When estimating the impact of an inherent risk, which of the following should internal auditors consider?

Options:

A.

The probability and frequency of occurrence

B.

Financial and nonfinancial factors related to the risk

C.

The number of risks identified on the heat map

D.

The residual risk following implementation of appropriate controls

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Questions 20

Which of the following audit steps would an internal auditor perform when reviewing cash disbursements to satisfy IIA guidance on due professional care?

Options:

A.

The calculated statistical sample size is 50 however the internal auditor believes errors exist so he decides to increase the sample size to 80

B.

The internal auditor traces serial numbers of computer equipment listed on an invoice to the fixed asset inventory

C.

The internal auditor reviews the accounts payable manager's petty cash fund and vouchers

D.

The internal auditor reviews the related invoice purchase order and receiving report for each sample selection

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Questions 21

What information would be most useful to an internal auditor who is attempting to identify specific processes to include in the scope of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Recent organizationwide recognition awards given to employees within the area.

B.

The timing of the most recent audit of the area.

C.

Management's presentation to the board regarding recent area achievements.

D.

Recent area performance indicators against productivity metrics.

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Questions 22

Which of the following factors would be the most critical in determining which engagements should be included in the annual internal audit plan?

Options:

A.

Whether an audit is explicitly required by the internal audit charter

B.

The extent to which the work to be performed is an assurance or consulting engagement

C.

The organization's annual risk management strategy

D.

Risks that are identified by operations staff or senior management

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Questions 23

Which of the following is an example of internal benchmarking?

Options:

A.

Book value per common share ratio is lower than that of the prior year.

B.

Staff turnover ratio is higher than the comparable organization in the same industry.

C.

Utilities expense of the sales unit is higher than that of the customer service unit.

D.

Sales are significantly higher than the industry’s average for five years.

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Questions 24

The audit plan requires a review of the testing procedures used in pre-production of a large information system prior to its live launch. If the chief audit executive (CAE) is uncertain that the current audit team has all the required knowledge to conduct the engagement, which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for the CAE to take to preserve independence?

Options:

A.

Contract with the software vendor to provide an appropriate resource.

B.

Ask for a knowledgeable resource from the IT department.

C.

Make use of an external service provider.

D.

Request audit resources through the external auditor.

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Questions 25

Which of the following is an effective approach for internal auditors to take to improve collaboration with audit clients during an engagement?

1. Obtain control concerns from the client before the audit begins so the internal auditor can tailor the scope accordingly.

2. Discuss the engagement plan with the client so the client can understand the reasoning behind the approach.

3. Review test criteria and procedures where the client expresses concerns about the type of tests to be conducted.

4. Provide all observations at the end of the audit to ensure the client is in agreement with the facts before publishing the report.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Questions 26

An internal auditor is asked to perform an assurance engagement in the organization's newly acquired subsidiary When developing the objectives tor the engagement which ot the following statements describes the most important items that the auditor needs to consider?

Options:

A.

Previous performance of the subsidiary specifically its financial results over the last three years and the outcome of external audit reviews

B.

The results of previous internal audits of the subsidiary the recommendations provided and whether the recommended actions have been implemented

C.

Organizational strategy objectives, risks, control framework and the expectations of stakeholders regarding the audit

D.

The qualifications and competencies of the subsidiary's management team and their understanding of risk and control

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Questions 27

An organization owns vehicles that are kept off-site by employees to pick up and deliver orders. An internal auditor selects a specific vehicle from the fixed asset register for

testing. Which of the following would best provide sufficient, indirect evidence for the auditor to confirm the existence of the vehicle?

Options:

A.

Review logs of the vehicles assigned to employees for the delivery of goods during the engagement period.

B.

Visit the home address of the specific employee to see the selected vehicle.

C.

Compare the registered details of the vehicle in the fixed asset register to a date-stamped photograph of the vehicle.

D.

Seek independent confirmation of the vehicle's details from one of the delivery employees.

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Questions 28

While conducting a review of the logistics department the internal audit team identified a crucial control weakness. The chief audit executive (CAE) decided to prepare an audit memorandum for management of the logistics department followed by an informal meeting What is the most likely reason the CAE decided to prepare the audit memorandum?

Options:

A.

To report up-to-date audit progress to management

B.

To ensure that the internal audit team and the CAE are aligned with regard to the identified weakness

C.

To allow management to address the identified weakness timely

D.

To obtain management's agreement with regard to the identified weakness

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Questions 29

An internal auditor is planning a consuming engagement and the objective is to identify opportunities to improve the efficiency of the organization’s procurement process. The auditor is preparing to conduct a preliminary survey of the area. Which of the following approaches would be most useful to obtain relevant information to support the engagement objective?

Options:

A.

Complete a transaction walkthrough fiat focuses on the design and operation of financial reporting controls

B.

Conduct interviews with senior management to obtain their input and insights regarding operational controls.

C.

Perform a comprehensive review of the organization s existing policies and standard operating procedures.

D.

Review the procurement process map w*h employees who carry out key activities to obtain their input and insights.

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Questions 30

An internal audit manager is planning a contract compliance audit Which of the following should be done prior to developing the audit work program?

Options:

A.

Select a sample of invoices for substantive testing

B.

Review the contract for evidence of authorization

C.

Document underlying reasons for noncompliance

D.

Assess the inherent risk of paying duplicate invoices

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Questions 31

An internal auditor has suspicions that the management of a department splits me number of planned purchases to avoid the approval process required for larger purchases. Which of the following would be the most efficient technique to help the auditor identify the seventy of this malpractice?

Options:

A.

Examining the entire population

B.

Asking management about the malpractice

C.

Testing a sample of random transactions.

D.

Using data analytics

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Questions 32

Which of the following activities demonstrates an example of the chief audit executive performing residual risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis of management not implementing a recommendation to address an observation.

B.

Inquiry of corrective action to be completed within a certain period.

C.

Reporting the status of every observation for every engagement in a detailed manner.

D.

Soliciting management’s feedback after completion of the audit engagement.

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Questions 33

During a previous audit engagement, an internal auditor recommended that management implement a whistleblowing process. During follow-up, the auditor discovered that the process has been outsourced. Which of the following is the most appropriate response for the internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Insist on establishing an internal whistleblowing process, as originally recommended, because this is a key control.

B.

Review the agreement with the third-party service provider and ensure that appropriate controls are in place.

C.

Raise the issue to a higher level of management, as outsourcing the process was not previously discussed or agreed upon.

D.

Take no action, as management has accepted the risk of moving to a third party for this whistleblowing process.

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Questions 34

When creating the internal audit plan, the chief audit executive should prioritize engagements based primarily on which of the following?

Options:

A.

The last available risk assessment.

B.

Requests from senior management and the board.

C.

The longest interval since the last examination of each audit universe item.

D.

The auditable areas required by regulatory agencies.

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Questions 35

Which of the following should be the focus of the effect section of the preliminary observations document?

Options:

A.

Residual risk

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Control activities

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Questions 36

Which of the following statements is true regarding the audit objective for an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Operational management must determine the audit objective in cooperation with the internal auditor

B.

The audit objective may be adjusted after the start of an engagement and it does not need to align with the assessed risks

C.

The audit objective must consider the possibility of fraud and noncompliance

D.

The audit objective may or may not consider the possibility of fraud depending on the assessed likelihood and impact

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Questions 37

The head of customer service asked the chief audit executive (CAE) whether internal auditors could assist her staff with conducting a risk self-assessment in the customer service department The CAE promised to meet with customer service managers analyze relevant business processes and come up with a proposal Who is most likely to be the final approver of the engagement objectives and scope?

Options:

A.

Senior management of the organization

B.

The chief audit executive

C.

The head of customer service

D.

The board of directors

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Questions 38

Which of the following would most likely cause an internal auditor to consider adding fraud work steps to the audit program?

Options:

A.

Improper segregation of duties.

B.

Incentives and bonus programs.

C.

An employee's reported concerns.

D.

Lack of an ethics policy.

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Questions 39

Which of the following would offer the strongest evidence to support the internal auditor's conclusion that a product is in stock, as stated in the accounting records?

Options:

A.

The auditor performs an observation.

B.

The vendor provides third-party confirmation.

C.

The auditor documents interviews with multiple warehouse personnel.

D.

Warehouse management submits photographs of the product on the inventory shelf.

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Questions 40

Which of the following should be described in the recognition element of a typical internal audit repot?

Options:

A.

Positive aspects of the process or area under review

B.

A brief synopsis of the process of area under review

C.

Outcomes and ratings of the process or area under review

D.

Report issuance and the communication process of the engagement.

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Questions 41

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is a limitation of a heat map?

Options:

A.

Impact cannot be represented on a heat map unless it is quantified in financial terms.

B.

Impact and likelihood at times cannot be differentiated as to which is more important.

C.

A heat map cannot be used unless a risk and control matrix has been developed.

D.

Qualitative factors cannot be incorporated into a heat map.

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Questions 42

An internal auditor selects a sample of paid invoices and matches them to receiving reports. What is the most likely purpose for this procedure?

Options:

A.

To ensure all customer shipments are billed appropriately.

B.

To ensure invoices are only paid for goods received.

C.

To ensure all liabilities have been satisfied.

D.

To ensure invoices are only paid for goods ordered.

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Questions 43

As part of internal audit's assistance with an annual external audit, the internal auditors are required to do a preliminary analytical review of an bank account balances. This involves verifying the current year end balances as web as comparing the current year end balances with previous year end balances to highlight significant changes. Which of the following is the most reliable source for verification of the current year end bank balances?

Options:

A.

Bank confirmations

B.

Internal bonk statements

C.

Bank reconciliations as of the end of the year

D.

Bank account general ledger balancer as of the end of the year

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Questions 44

For which of the following fraud engagement activities would it be most appropriate to involve a forensic auditor?

Options:

A.

Independently evaluating conflicts of interests.

B.

Assessing contracts for relevant terms and conditions.

C.

Performing statistical analysis for data anomalies.

D.

Preparing evidentiary documentation.

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Questions 45

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements are true regarding the internal audit plan?

1. The audit plan is based on an assessment of risks to the organization.

2. The audit plan is designed to determine the effectiveness of the organization's risk management process.

3. The audit plan is developed by senior management of the organization.

4. The audit plan is aligned with the organization's goals.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

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Questions 46

Upon the completion of an audit engagement an audit manager performs a review of a staff auditor's workpapers. Which of the following actions by the manager is the most appropriate this review''

Options:

A.

Communicate the workpaper review results to management of fie area under review to validate the final report

B.

Update the final report in the file with any necessary corrections based on the workpaper review.

C.

Discuss the workpaper review results with the staff auditor where appropriate as a leaning opportunity

D.

Add the manager's review notes to the final documentation following the review

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Questions 47

The internal audit manager has been delegated the task of preparing the annual internal audit plan for the forthcoming fiscal year. All engagements should be appropriately categorized and presented to the chief audit executive for review. Which of the following would most likely be classified as a consulting engagement?

Options:

A.

Evaluating procurement department process effectiveness.

B.

Helping in the design of the risk management program.

C.

Assessing financial reporting control adequacy.

D.

Reviewing environmental, social, and governance reporting compliance.

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Questions 48

An audit identified a number of weaknesses in the configuration of a critical client/server system. Although some of the weaknesses were corrected prior to the issuance of the audit report, correction of the rest will require between 6 and 18 months for completion. Consequently, management has developed a detailed action plan, with anticipated completion dates, for addressing the weaknesses. What is the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to take?

Options:

A.

Assess the status of corrective action during a follow-up audit engagement after the action plan has been completed.

B.

Assess the effectiveness of corrections by reviewing statistics related to unplanned system outages, and denials of service.

C.

Reassign information systems auditors to assist in implementing management's action plan.

D.

Evaluate the ability of the action plan to correct the weaknesses and monitor key dates and deliverables.

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Questions 49

Which of the following risk assessment approaches involves gathering data from work team representing different levels of an organisation?

Options:

A.

Surveys

B.

Management produced analysis 0

C.

Facilitated team workshops

D.

Weighted risk factors

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Questions 50

During the review of an organization's retail fraud deterrence program, an employee mentions that an expensive fraud surveillance information system is rarely used. The internal auditor concludes that additional staff are required to properly utilize the system to its full potential. According to IIA guidance, which criteria for evidence is most lacking to reach this conclusion?

Options:

A.

Sufficiency.

B.

Reliability.

C.

Relevancy.

D.

Usefulness.

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Questions 51

According to HA guidance on IT, which of the following actions would be performed as part of the "Define IT Universe" stage of the IT audit plan development process?

Options:

A.

Identify significant applications that support the business operations

B.

Assess risk and rank subjects using business risk factors

C.

Identify how the organization structures its business operations

D.

Select audit subjects and bundle into distinct audit engagements

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Questions 52

Which of the following represents the best method for confirming that vendor invoices were for authorized purchases?

Options:

A.

Vouching vendor invoices to payments made.

B.

Sorting invoices by purchase orders and comparing for successive duplicate invoices.

C.

Comparing a random sample of vendor invoices to purchase orders.

D.

Sorting payments by invoice to detect successive duplicate invoices.

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Questions 53

As part of the preliminary survey, an internal auditor sent an internal control questionnaire to the accounts payable function Based on the questionnaire responses, the auditor determines that there is no established procedure for adding and approving new vendors. What would the auditor do next?

Options:

A.

Determine that this situation is acceptable and focus on more significant issues

B.

Document the issue m the draft audit report

C.

Document the observation for further follow up when testing the operating effectiveness of controls

D.

Interview the personnel associated with this observation.

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Questions 54

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes the purpose of a planning memorandum for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

It documents the audit steps and procedures to be performed.

B.

It documents preliminary information useful to the audit team.

C.

It documents events that could hinder the achievement of process objectives.

D.

It documents existing measures that manage risks in the area under review.

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Questions 55

Management has taken immediate action to address an observation received during an audit of the organization's manufacturing process Which of the following is true regarding the validity of the observation closure?

Options:

A.

Valid closure requires evidence that ensures the corrected process will function as expected in the future

B.

Valid closure requires the client lo address not only the condition, but also the cause of the condition

C.

Valid closure of an observation ensures it will be included in the final engagement report

D.

Valid closure requires assurance from management that the original problem will not recur in the future

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Questions 56

A chief audit executive (CAE) received a detailed internal report of senior management's internal control assessment. Which of the following subsequent actions by the CAE would provide the greatest assurance over management's assertions?

Options:

A.

Assert whether the described and reported control processes and systems exist.

B.

Assess whether senior management adequately supports and promotes the internal control culture described in the report.

C.

Evaluate the completeness of the report and management's responses to identified deficiencies.

D.

Determine whether management's operating style and the philosophy described in the report reflect the effective functioning of internal controls.

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Questions 57

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a small internal audit activity (IAA) plans to test conformance with the Standards through a quality assurance review. According to the Standards, which of the following are acceptable practice for this review?

1. Use an external service provider.

2. Conduct a self-assessment with independent validation.

3. Arrange for a review by qualified employees outside of the IAA.

4. Arrange for reciprocal peer review with another CAE.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 4

C.

1, 2, and 3

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 58

A newly promoted chief audit executive (CAE) is faced with a backlog of assurance engagement reports to review for approval. In an attempt to attach a priority for this review, the CAE scans the opinion statement on each report. According to IIA guidance, which of the following opinions would receive the lowest review priority?

1. Graded positive opinion.

2. Negative assurance opinion.

3. Limited assurance opinion.

4. Third-party opinion.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 59

To which of the following aspects should the chief audit executive give the most consideration while communicating an identified unacceptable risk to management?

Options:

A.

The organization's attitude to hierarchy

B.

The organization's whistleblowing strategy

C.

The organization's ongoing risk monitoring process

D.

The organization's risk management policy

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Questions 60

Senior IT management requests the internal audit activity to perform an audit of a complex IT area. The chief audit executive (CAE) knows that the internal audit activity lacks the expertise to perform the engagement. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Decline the audit engagement, because the Standards prohibit internal auditors from performing engagements where they lack the necessary competencies.

B.

Accept the audit engagement and use the engagement as an opportunity to develop the audit team’s IT expertise while performing the audit work.

C.

Temporarily hire an experienced and knowledgeable IT analyst from the organization's IT department to lead the audit.

D.

Outsource the audit engagement to a reputable IT audit consulting firm.

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Questions 61

Which of the following is one of the differences between probability-proportional-to-size (PPS) and attribute sampling?

Options:

A.

PPS sampling s used to reach conclusions regarding monetary amounts, attribute sampling is not.

B.

PPS sampling is used to roach conclusions regarding rates of occurrence, attribute sampling is not.

C.

PPS sampling a applied within the context of testing controls attribute sampling s not.

D.

Attribute sampling is affected by the monetary book value of the population PPS sampling is not

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Questions 62

Which of the following actions is the most appropriate response for an internal auditor to take when a significant risk is identified during a consulting engagement?

Options:

A.

Report the risk identified from the consulting engagement to senior management.

B.

Do not include the risk in the assessment of risk management processes, as that is management's responsibility.

C.

Do not report the risk, as it is out of scope for the consulting engagement.

D.

Include the risk identified from the consulting engagement in the next annual risk assessment only if it is part of the consulting engagement objectives.

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Questions 63

Which of the following is an appropriate documentation of proper engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

A completed engagement workpaper review checklist.

B.

The supervisor's review notes on engagement workpapers.

C.

The email exchanges between the audit team and the supervisor.

D.

A supervisor's approval of resources allocated to the engagement

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Questions 64

Which of the following would be the most helpful to a chief audit executive when developing a talent management strategy?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Staff preferences

C.

Maturity analysis

D.

Extent of external audit coverage

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Questions 65

Which of the following has the greatest effect on the efficiency of an audit?

Options:

A.

The complexity of deficiency findings.

B.

The adequacy of preliminary survey information.

C.

The organization and content of workpapers.

D.

The method and amount of supporting detail used for the audit report.

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Questions 66

Which of the following is not an outcome of control self-assessment?

Options:

A.

Informal, soft controls are omitted, and greater focus is placed on hard controls.

B.

The entire objectives-risks-controls infrastructure of an organization is subject to greater monitoring and continuous improvement.

C.

Internal auditors become involved in and knowledgeable about the self-assessment process.

D.

Nonaudit employees become experienced in assessing controls and associating control processes with managing risks.

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Questions 67

Senior management requested that the internal audit activity perform a consulting project to assist in making a decision on a new software system. Which of the following would be used to determine the engagement objectives?

Options:

A.

An assessment of risks to the business objectives

B.

An understanding of the engagement client's expectations

C.

The probability of significant errors fraud or noncompliance

D.

Criteria previously established by the board

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Questions 68

An internal auditor wants to identity potential ghost employees in the organization's payroll system The auditor extracts the following data

- Human resources data with employees' names addresses employment conditions and identification codes

- Payroll data

- Logs from entrance systems

With this data, which of the following types of ghost employees will the auditor be able to identify?

Options:

A.

Employees who are being paid more than then approved wages

B.

Employees who get paid although their employment has expired

C.

Employees who are related to one of the subcontractors

D.

Employees who are physically present at the workplace but who do not perform the specified job duties

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Questions 69

A large retail organization, which sells most of its products online, experiences a computer hacking incident. The chief IT officer immediately investigates the incident and concludes that the attempt was not successful. The chief audit executive (CAE) learns of the attack in a casual conversation with an IT auditor. Which of the following actions should the CAE take?

1. Meet with the chief IT officer to discuss the report and control improvements that will be implemented as a result of the security breach, if any.

2. Immediately inform the chair of the audit committee of the security breach, because thus far only the chief IT officer is aware of the incident.

3. Meet with the IT auditor to develop an appropriate audit program to review the organization's Internet-based sales process and key controls.

4. Include the incident in the next quarterly report to the audit committee.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 70

Which of the following would most likely form part of the engagement scope?

Options:

A.

Potential legislation on privacy topics will be employed as a compliance target.

B.

Wire transfers that exceeded $10,000 in the last 12 months will be analyzed.

C.

Both random and judgmental samplings will be used during the engagement.

D.

The probability of significant errors will be considered via risk assessment.

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Questions 71

Which of the following is the primary reason a chief audit executive should network with an organization’s executives?

Options:

A.

To better understand and influence executives' planning.

B.

To make executives aware of the benefits that the internal audit activity can provide.

C.

To assist executives in setting the organization’s risk appetite.

D.

To have a better understanding of the training needed to strengthen the audit team.

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Questions 72

Which of the following computerized audit tools or techniques should be used if the internal auditor wants to extract specific files and records in the database?

Options:

A.

An expert or decision support system

B.

Generalized audit software

C.

A system utility program

D.

An integrated test facility

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Questions 73

The internal audit activity has become aware of public complaints regarding the sales practices of telephone marketing personnel in a large organization. The internal auditors decide to review a sample of all complaints within the last three months to ensure they are reflective of current marketing practices. Which of the following best describes this sampling technique?

Options:

A.

Judgmental sampling

B.

Random sampling

C.

Discovery sampling

D.

Statistical sampling

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Questions 74

When constructing a staffing schedule for the internal audit activity (IAA), which of the following criteria are most important for the chief audit executive to consider for the effective use of audit resources?

1. The competency and qualifications of the audit staff for specific assignments.

2. The effectiveness of IAA staff performance measures.

3. The number of training hours received by staff auditors compared to the budget.

4. The geographical dispersion of audit staff across the organization.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 75

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal controls?

Options:

A.

For assurance engagements internal auditors should plan to assess the effectiveness of all entity-level controls

B.

Poorly designed or deficient entity-level controls can prevent well-designed process controls from working as intended.

C.

During engagement planning, internal auditors should not discuss the identified key risks and controls with management of the area under review to prevent tipping off probable audit lasts

D.

Reviewing process maps and flowcharts is an appropriate method for the internal a auditor to identify all key risks and controls during engagement planning

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Questions 76

To compete in the global market, an organization is restructuring and consolidating many of its divisions. Prior to the consolidation, senior management requested assistance from tie internal audit activity. Which of the following consulting services would be most appropriate in this situation?

Options:

A.

Assess controls for potential compliance issues that may affect me consolidation

B.

Brief vendors on the potential risks that will occur without continued business

C.

Advise division managers on how to streamline operations for better efficiency

D.

Determine whether the organization’s controls are effective in meeting business objectives

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Questions 77

An internal auditor is conducting a review of the procurement function and uncovers a potential conflict of interest between the chief operating officer and a significant supplier of IT software development services. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Inform the audit supervisor.

B.

Investigate the potential conflict of interest.

C.

Inform the external auditors of the potential conflict of interest.

D.

Disregard the potential conflict, because it is outside the scope of the audit assignment.

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Questions 78

According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding the annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

The annual audit plan should only be adjusted in response to problems with resourcing, scope, and data availability.

B.

The chief audit executive (CAE) may incorporate risk information, including risk appetite levels from management for the audit plan at her discretion.

C.

In an immature risk management environment it is preferable for the CAE to rely solely on her judgment regarding risk identification and assessment to develop the audit plan.

D.

The CAE may make adjustments to the annual audit plan as needed without senior management or board approval.

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Questions 79

An internal auditor is using attributes sampling to test internal controls. Under which of the following circumstances would the auditor increase the original sample size to estimate error occurrence at a given precision and confidence level?

Options:

A.

The sample rate of occurrence plus the precision exceeds the acceptable error rate.

B.

The sample rate of occurrence is less than the acceptable error rate.

C.

The acceptable rate of occurrence less the precision exceeds the sample rate of occurrence.

D.

The sample rate of occurrence plus the precision equals the acceptable error rate.

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Questions 80

Due to price risk from the foreign currency purchase of aviation fuel, an airliner has purchased forward contracts to hedge against fluctuations in the exchange rate. When recalculating the exchange losses from individual purchases of jet fuel, which of the following details does the internal auditor need to validate?

1. The hedge documentation designating the hedge.

2. The spot exchange rate on the transaction date.

3. The terms of the forward contract.

4. The amount of fuel purchased.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 81

Which of the following approaches would best help an internal auditor determine whether a retailer database of 100,000 customers has nay duplicate accounts?

Options:

A.

Stratifying the customer information

B.

Extracting the customer information

C.

Filtering the customer information

D.

Sorting the customer information

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Questions 82

At a construction company, an internal auditor is planning an audit of the company's process for designing and building grid connections The process involves customers making payments m three parts

• The first payment of 10% after approval of the customer s application

• The second payment of 70% prior to construction

• The third payment of 20% after construction is complete

Which of the following key controls should the auditor test to ensure that the company is not taking any unwanted credit risks?

Options:

A.

Controls that ensure that grid connection design is finalized before construction is approved to begin

B.

Controls that ensure construction orders are initiated after the second invoice is paid

C.

Controls that ensure all three invoices are calculated correctly according to the total project cost

D.

Controls that ensure that applications are verified for approval prior to initiating design and construction

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Questions 83

During audit engagement planning, an internal auditor is determining the best approach for leveraging computer-assisted audit techniques (CAATs). Which of the following approaches maximizes the use of CAATs and why?

Options:

A.

Tracing, because it would enable the auditor to verify quickly that the record counts were properly included in the compilation.

B.

Inspection, because it would enable the auditor to verify how management enters the data into the application for processing.

C.

Testing data, because it would enable the auditor to ensure that the application processes the transaction as described by management.

D.

Reperformance, because it enables the auditor to verify that the application performed the calculation correctly.

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Questions 84

An audit client responded to recommendations from a recent consulting engagement. The client indicated that several recommended process improvements would not be implemented. Which of the following actions should the internal audit activity take in response?

Options:

A.

Escalate the unresolved issues to the board, because they could pose significant risk exposures to the organization.

B.

Confirm the decision with management and document this decision in the audit file.

C.

Document the issue in the audit file and follow up until the issues are resolved.

D.

Initiate an assurance engagement on the unresolved issues.

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Questions 85

Senior management is challenging regulatory fines that were assessed to the organization due to questionable business practices. Their actions and the fines could have an adverse effect on the organization's ability to continue business. How would the chief audit executive respond?

Options:

A.

Assume responsibility for quantifying and minimizing the residual risks to the organization.

B.

Assess the level of financial risks that may affect the organization's stability.

C.

Inform the regulatory agency about senior management's action and seek guidance.

D.

Proceed with a consulting engagement to benchmark similar organizations' business practices in the region.

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Questions 86

How do internal auditors generally determine the priority of the areas within the engagement scope?

Options:

A.

By calculating the period of time when the area was last audited try internal auditors

B.

By totaling the monetary value of the processes within the organization in the scope of the engagement

C.

By counting the number of red flags indicating the potential fraudulent activities within the area.

D.

By estimating the likelihood of a risks occurring and the potential impact of that risk on the organization

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Questions 87

Which of The following best justifies an internal auditor's decision to issue a preliminary audit report?

Options:

A.

The internal audit team and audit client have a serious dispute over the scope and objective of the engagement

B.

The internal audit team expects management to address certain issues immediately due to their severe impact

C.

The internal audit team anticipates that the formal final audit report would be undesirable for management due to the significance of outlined risks

D.

The internal audit team would like to issue a clean final audit report without any material observations or risks

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Questions 88

Which of the following statement is consistent with IIA guidance the use of mentoring for internal auditors?

Options:

A.

The member and the internal auditor should opt for informal meetings even if it means that no formal documentation will be created.

B.

The mentor relationship is usually not suitable for internal audit staff, as it does not leas to professional development.

C.

The value of mentoring is derived primarily from the personal relationship between the two parties involved, and the mentor’s level of relevant experience should not be a key factor.

D.

The mentor should be the internal auditor’s supervisor to ensure that the auditor performance is assessed in a relevant and meaningful context.

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Questions 89

Which of the following is not a primary purpose for conducting a walk-through during the initial stages of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

To help develop process maps.

B.

To determine segregation of duties.

C.

To identify residual risks.

D.

To test the adequacy of controls.

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Questions 90

What is the purpose of an internal control questionnaire?

Options:

A.

To gather information from a sample of people who are geographically dispersed

B.

To assess risks that could prevent an audited area from achieving its objectives.

C.

To evaluate tie level of compliance of remote offices with centrally designed procedures

D.

To perform testing of controls more frequently

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Questions 91

In which of the following situations would an internal control questionnaire best suit the internal auditor's purpose?

Options:

A.

The auditor wants to receive mid-level management insight on how to improve hiring practices

B.

The auditor wants to obtain information on whether adherence to approval matrices is actually taking place in different maintenance units.

C.

The auditor wants to gain assurance that inventory counts are conducted in accordance with established procedures.

D.

The auditor wants to assess whether different subsidiaries apply centrally established procurement rules in the same manner

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Questions 92

An organization recently acquired a subsidiary in a new industry, and management asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to perform a comprehensive audit of the subsidiary prior to recommencing operations The CAE is unsure her team has the necessary skills and knowledge to accept the engagement According to IIAguidance, which of the following responses by the CAE would be most appropriate?

Options:

A.

The CAE should accept the engagement and ensure that an explanation of the expertise limitations is included in the final audit report.

B.

The CAE should ask management to hire an external expert who is familiar with the industry to perform an independent audit for management

C.

The CAE should accept the engagement and hire an external expert to assist the audit team with the audit of the subsidiary

D.

The CAE should recommend postponing the engagement until the internal audit team is able to develop sufficient knowledge of the new industry

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Questions 93

The board has asked the internal audit activity (IAA) to be involved in the organization's enterprise risk management process. Which of the following activities is appropriate for IAA to perform without safeguards?

Options:

A.

Coach management in responding to risks.

B.

Develop risk management strategies for board approval.

C.

Facilitate identification and evaluation of risks.

D.

Evaluate risk management processes.

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Questions 94

During follow-up. the internal auditor discovered that operational management did not implement effective actions to address a significant control breach If the issue is left unresolved it may result in regulatory sanctions and damage the organization's reputation What is the most appropriate next step for the chief audit executive to lake?

Options:

A.

Report the matter to the board

B.

Implement the recommended control to address the exposure

C.

Discuss the matter with senior management

D.

Ask the regulatory agency to persuade management to address the issue

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Questions 95

What is the primary purpose of creating a preliminary draft audit report?

Options:

A.

To save time during final report writing

B.

To meet the Standards requirement for developing a draft report prior to issuing a final report

C.

To use as a tool for communicating with management of the area under review.

D.

To require that management implements solutions to issues identified during the engagement

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Questions 96

When determining the level of staff and resources to be dedicated to an assurance engagement, which of the following would be the most relevant to the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

The overall adequacy of the internal audit activity's resources.

B.

The availability of guest auditors for the engagement.

C.

The number of internal auditors used for the previous review of the same area.

D.

The available resources with the specific skill set required.

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Questions 97

Which of the following should management action plans include at a minimum?

Options:

A.

An implementer for the action plan

B.

An owner of the action plan

C.

The internal auditor's next review date of the action plan

D.

Detailed procedures for the action plan

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Questions 98

According to the Standards, which of the following is leastimportant in determining the adequacy of an annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

Sufficiency.

B.

Appropriateness.

C.

Effective deployment.

D.

Cost effectiveness.

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Questions 99

When establishing a quality assurance and improvement program, the chief audit executive should ensure the program is designed to accomplish which of the following objectives?

1. Add value.

2. Improve operations.

3. Provide assurance that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards.

4. Provide assurance that the internal audit activity conforms with the IIA Code of Ethics.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Questions 100

An internal auditor recommended that an organization implement computerized controls in its sales system in order to prevent sales representatives from executing contracts in excess of their delegated authority levels A follow-up review found that the sales system had not been modified, but a process had been implemented to obtain written approval by the vice president of sales for all contracts in excess of S1 million The chief audit executive (CAE) would be justified in reporting this situation to the organization's board under which of the tollowing circumstances'?

1. In the opinion of the CAE the level of residual risk assumed by senior management is too high

2. Testing of compliance with the new process finds that all new contracts in excess of $1 million have been approved by the vice president of sales

3. The cost of modifying the sales system to include a preventive control is less than S100.000

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

3 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and3

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Questions 101

According to IIA guidance, how should an internal auditor apply any relevant information obtained from an internal consulting engagement during a related internal audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Document any facts obtained and include them as part of the audit engagement workpapers.

B.

Rely upon the information to draw conclusions about the effectiveness of controls.

C.

Use the knowledge obtained to evaluate the effectiveness of internal control processes.

D.

Objectivity requires that this information should not be used in any part of the audit engagement.

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Questions 102

An internal auditor plans to conduct a walk-through to evaluate the control design of a process. Which of the following techniques is the auditor most likely to use?

Options:

A.

Observation and inspection.

B.

Inquiry and observation.

C.

Inspection and reperformance.

D.

Inquiry and reperformance.

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Questions 103

According to IIA guidance, which of the following are the most important objectives for helping to ensure the appropriate completion of an engagement?

1. Coordinate audit team members to ensure the efficient execution of all engagement procedures.

2. Confirm engagement workpapers properly support the observations, recommendations, and conclusions.

3. Provide structured learning opportunities for engagement auditors when possible.

4. Ensure engagement objectives are reviewed for satisfactory achievement and are documented properly.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 104

It is close to the fiscal year end for a government agency, and the chief audit executive (CAE) has the following items to submit to either the board or the chief executive officer (CEO) for approval. According to IIA guidance, which of the following items should be submitted only to the CEO?

Options:

A.

The internal audit risk assessment and audit plan for the next fiscal year.

B.

The internal audit budget and resource plan for the coming fiscal year.

C.

A request for an increase of the CAE's salary for the next fiscal year.

D.

The evaluation and compensation of the internal audit team.

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Questions 105

An internal audit activity plans its engagements based on an organization-wide risk assessment. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the required frequency of the risk assessment?

Options:

A.

The risk assessment must be performed at least quarterly.

B.

The risk assessment must be performed at least annually.

C.

The risk assessment must be performed at least once every five years, in alignment with the internal audit activity's quality assurance and improvement program.

D.

There is no specific requirement; a risk assessment should be performed as needed to account for changes in the business environment.

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Questions 106

When auditing an organization's cash-handling activates which of the following is the most reliable form of testimonial evidence an internal auditor can obtain?

Options:

A.

Testimony from the cashier who performs the processes being reviewed

B.

Testimony from me cashier's supervisor who knows how processes should be performed

C.

Testimony from a knowledgeable person who is independent of the cashiering duty

D.

Testimony from a manager who oversees all cashiering activities being reviewed

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Questions 107

In an organization with a large internal audit activity that has several audit teams performing engagements simultaneously which of the following tasks is an engagement supervisor most likely to perform during the planning phase of a new engagement?

Options:

A.

Establish a means for resolving any professional judgment differences over ethical issues that may arise during the engagement.

B.

Approve the engagement work program to ensure the program is designed to achieve the engagement objectives

C.

Evaluate whether the testing and results support the engagement results and conclusion

D.

Review the sample testing results for exceptions.

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Questions 108

Management testimony of improper segregation of duties in the cash receipt process can be considered which of the following?

Options:

A.

Analytical

B.

Reliable

C.

Relevant

D.

Sufficient

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Questions 109

During an internal audit engagement, which of the following is true regarding the decision to use statistical sampling or nonstatistical sampling?

Options:

A.

The decision affects the test procedures performed.

B.

The auditor's response to errors detected will be influenced.

C.

The competence of the evidence obtained is greater with statistical sampling.

D.

Nonstatistical sampling may be more cost effective.

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Questions 110

A draft internal audit report that cites deficient conditions generally should be reviewed with which of the following groups?

1. The client manager and her superior.

2. Anyone who may object to the report’s validity.

3. Anyone required to take action.

4. The same individuals who receive the final report.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1, 2, and 3

D.

1, 2, and 4

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Questions 111

Due to a recent system upgrade, an audit is planned to test the payroll process. Which of the following audit objectives would be most important to prevent fraud?

Options:

A.

Verify that amounts are correct.

B.

Verify that payments are on time.

C.

Verify that recipients are valid employees.

D.

Verify that benefits deductions are accurate.

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Questions 112

Upon concluding the engagement fieldwork an internal auditor discusses the audit findings with operational management There is a greater likelihood that the auditor will obtain a responsive action plan from management when both parties agree on which of the following attributes of the audit finding?

Options:

A.

Criteria

B.

Condition

C.

Cause

D.

Effect

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Questions 113

An internal auditor is conducting an assessment of the purchasing department. She has worked the full amount of hours budgeted for the engagement; however, the audit objectives are not yet complete. According to IIA guidance, which of the following are appropriate options available to the chief audit executive?

1. Allow the auditor to decide whether to extend the audit engagement.

2. Determine whether the work already completed is sufficient to conclude the engagement.

3. Provide the auditor feedback on areas of improvement for future engagements.

4. Provide the auditor with instructions and directions to complete the audit.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 114

Which of the following internal control attributes should internal auditors consider testing during a review of the board of directors?

Options:

A.

The presence of an independent critical mass

B.

The established philosophy and operating style of senior management

C.

The articulated internal control objectives of the organization

D.

The organization's employee recruiting and retention policies

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Questions 115

An internal audit manager assigns an audit team to test purchase transactions by selecting a sample from transactions processed by each of the three procurement officers.

Which of the following techniques will help the audit team achieve this sampling objective?

Options:

A.

Systematic sampling.

B.

Stratified sampling.

C.

Stop-or-go sampling

D.

Discovery sampling.

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Questions 116

Which of The following best describes a risk that is deemed "unacceptable" to the organization?

Options:

A.

A risk where likelihood and impact are high

B.

A risk where inherent risk exceeds its residual risk

C.

A risk where inherent risk exceeds the tolerance level

D.

A risk where residual risk exceeds the tolerance level

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Questions 117

An internal auditor wants to compare performance information from one quarter to another. Which analytics procedure would the auditor use?

Options:

A.

Ratio analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Vertical analysis

D.

Benchmarking analysis

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Questions 118

Which of the following is an inherent risk of issuing an opinion on the overall effectiveness of internal control?

Options:

A.

The results of individual engagements do not support a satisfactory opinion on the effectiveness of internal control.

B.

The results of the individual engagements do not support a positive assurance opinion on the effectiveness of internal control

C.

The audit risk and associated legal implications increase

D.

The reliance on other assurance providers increases

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Questions 119

During an audit of suspense accounts the internal auditor found that there were no written policies on how suspense accounts should be treated. The auditor also found that suspense account balances were cleared once per week, not daily. Which of the following is the most appropriate first response by the auditor?

Options:

A.

The auditor should conclude that suspense accounts were not being cleared on a timely basis because they should be cleared daily

B.

The auditor should ask management whether any undocumented policies exist and. if so, determine whether they are adequate

C.

The auditor should conclude that the clearing of suspense accounts was timely and appropriate because weekly clearing is sufficient.

D.

The auditor should rely on his professional judgment and experience to develop criteria for evaluating the existing controls over suspense accounts

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Questions 120

An internal auditor using the five-attribute approach to document deficiencies in a warehouse shipping process. Which of the following attributes will be included in the workpapers?

Options:

A.

Risk, impact likelihood existing control, recommendation

B.

Condition, cause, effect, recommendation

C.

Condition, cause effect test result

D.

Risk, impact test result recommendation

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Questions 121

Which of the following statements about including consulting engagements in the annual internal audit plan is true?

Options:

A.

All requests for consulting engagements must be included in the annual internal audit plan

B.

Assurance engagements must be included in the annual internal audit plan but there is no requirement to include consulting engagements

C.

Consulting engagements do not need to be included m the annual internal audit plan unless requested by the board

D.

The acceptance of proposed consulting engagements into the annual internal audit plan may depend on their ability to add value

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Questions 122

According to IIA guidance, which of re following actions should the internal auditor take immediately after having considered fraud scenarios and identified and prioritized fraud risks?

Options:

A.

Determine which controls if any are in place to mitigate the fraud risks

B.

Follow protocol for internal reporting and investigating fraud allegations

C.

Research frauds that nave occurred t\ similar organizations

D.

Incorporate the fraud risk assessment into the engagement plan

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Questions 123

Which of the following describes (he primary reason why a preliminary risk assessment is conducted during engagement planning?

Options:

A.

To identify the greatest risks organizationwide

B.

To ensure that the engagement work program covers all risk areas

C.

To ensure that risks identified during previous audits of the area have been adequately addressed

D.

To ensure that significant risks are included in the engagement scope

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Questions 124

Which of the following engagement supervision activities should be performed first?

Options:

A.

Ensure that internal audit recommendations are practical, cost-effective, and value-added

B.

Ensure that internal audit conclusions am based on sufficient and reliable evidence

C.

Ensure that risks to the timely completion of the engagement are assessed

D.

Ensure that performance assessments are completed for audit team members

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Questions 125

Which of the following is the primary reason for internal auditors to conduct interim communications with management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

To demonstrate good project oversight

B.

To provide timely discussion of results

C.

To demonstrate internal auditor proficiency

D.

To follow up on previously requested information

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Questions 126

Which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

The engagement objectives are the boundaries for the engagement, which outline what will be included in the review

B.

The risk-based objectives of the engagement can be determined once the scope of the engagement has been formed

C.

For a consulting engagement, planning typically occurs after the engagement objectives and scope have already been determined

D.

For an assurance engagement, once the scope is established and testing has begun, the scope cannot be modified.

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Questions 127

An internal auditor is performing a review of an organization's vendor for any possible conflicts of interest. Which of the following would provide the greatest assistance to the auditor in meeting this objective?

Options:

A.

Vendor contracts.

B.

Employee master list.

C.

Payment records.

D.

Purchasing policy.

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Questions 128

Which method of examining entity-level controls involves gathering information from work groups that represent different levels in an organization?

Options:

A.

Questionnaires.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Structured interviews

D.

Facilitated team workshops

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Questions 129

A senior IT auditor is performing an audit of inventory valuation. The auditor misinterprets the sampling results. Which of the following best describes this situation?

Options:

A.

Sampling risk.

B.

Control risk.

C.

Nonsampling risk.

D.

Residual risk.

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Questions 130

The chief audit executive of an international organization is planning an audit of the treasury function located at the organization's headquarters. The current internal audit team at headquarters lacks expertise in the area of financial markets which is needed tor the engagement When of the following would be the most approbate solution considering the time constraint?

Options:

A.

Outsource the engagement 10 tie organization's external auditor who has expertise in the area of financial markets

B.

Hire additional internal auditors who have expertise in the area of financial markets.

C.

Invite a guest auditor from one of the organization's affiliates who has expertise m the area of financial markets.

D.

Limit the scope of the engagement to the knowledge and skills possessed by the internal audit team.

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Questions 131

The internal audit activity needs to review the information security function but does not have the IT expertise needed for the engagement. Which of the following actions should the chief audit executive take to ensure the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards?

Options:

A.

Assign the engagement to a staff auditor and closely review his work and report.

B.

Assign the engagement to a senior auditor, who carefully researches and studies the company’s IT infrastructure.

C.

Contract an external service provider auditor with the experience necessary to perform the audit.

D.

Perform the audit herself and work closely with the information security function to obtain expertise in the area.

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Questions 132

While reviewing the workpapers and draft report from an audit engagement, the chief audit executive (CAE) found that an important compensating control had not been considered adequately by the audit team when it reported a major control weakness. Therefore, the CAE returned the documentation to the auditor in charge for correction. Based on this information, which of the following sections of the workpapers most likely would require changes?

Effect of the control weakness.

Cause of the control weakness.

Conclusion on the control weakness.

Recommendation for the control weakness.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3.

B.

1, 2, and 4.

C.

1, 3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4.

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Questions 133

An internal auditor notes that employees continue to violate segregation-of-duty controls in several areas of the finance department, despite previous audit recommendations. Which of the following recommendations is the most appropriate to address this concern?

Options:

A.

Recommend additional segregation-of-duty reviews.

B.

Recommend appropriate awareness training for all finance department staff.

C.

Recommend rotating finance staff in this area.

D.

Recommend that management address these concerns immediately.

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Questions 134

Which of the following actions are appropriate for the chief audit executive to perform when identifying audit resource requirements?

1. Consider employees from other operational areas as audit resources, to provide additional audit coverage in the organization.

2. Approach an external service provider to conduct internal audits on certain areas of the organization, due to a lack of skills in the organization.

3. Suggest to the audit committee that an audit of technology be deferred until staff can be trained, due to limited IT audit skills among the audit staff.

4. Communicate to senior management a summary report on the status and adequacy of audit resources.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 135

According to IIA guidance, which of the following objectives was most likely formulated for a non-assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity will assess the effects of changes in maintenance strategy on the availability of production equipment.

B.

The internal audit activity will inform management on the possible risks of moving the data warehouse to a cloud server maintained by a third party.

C.

The internal audit activity will ascertain whether the data center security arrangements are compliant with agreed terms.

D.

The internal audit activity will ensure equipment downtime risks have been managed in accordance with internal policy.

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Questions 136

An organization's internal audit plan includes a recurring assurance review of the human resources (HR) department. Which of the following statements is true regarding preliminary communication between the auditor in charge (AIC) and the HR department?

1. The AIC should notify HR management when the draft audit plan is being developed, as a courtesy.

2. The AIC should notify HR management before the planning stage begins.

3. The AIC should schedule formal status meetings with HR management at the start of the engagement.

4. The AIC should finalize the scope of the engagement before communicating with HR management.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 137

An internal auditor wants to determine whether employees are complying with the information security policy, which prohibits leaving sensitive information on employee desks overnight. The auditor checked a sample of 90 desks and found eight that contained sensitive information. How should this observation be reported, if the organization tolerates 4 percent noncompliance?

Options:

A.

The matter does not need to be reported, because the noncompliant findings fall within the acceptable tolerance limit.

B.

The deviations are within the acceptable tolerance limit, so the matter only needs to be reported to the information security manager.

C.

The incidents of noncompliance fall outside the acceptable tolerance limit and require immediate corrective action, as opposed to reporting.

D.

The incidents of noncompliance exceed the tolerance level and should be included in the final engagement report.

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Questions 138

The chief audit executive of a medium-sized financial institution is evaluating the staffing model of the internal audit activity (IAA). According to IIA guidance, which of the following are the most appropriate strategies to maximize the value of the current IAA resources?

• The annual audit plan should include audits that are consistent with the skills of the IAA.

• Audits of high-risk areas of the organization should be conducted by internal audit staff.

• External resources may be hired to provide subject-matter expertise but should be supervised.

• Auditors should develop their skills by being assigned to complex audits for learning opportunities.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Questions 139

An audit observation states the following:

"Despite the rules of the organization there is no approved credit risk management policy in the subsidiary. The subsidiary is concluding contacts with clients who have very high credit ratings. The internal audit team tested 50 contacts and 17 showed clients with a poor credit history"

Which of the following components are missing in the observation?

Options:

A.

Cause and effect.

B.

Effect and criteria

C.

Condition and cause

D.

Criteria and condition.

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Questions 140

Acceding to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the risk assessment process performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The assessment of high-level risks is typically a linear process.

B.

Management should create the preliminary risk matrix

C.

The analysis should begin with ne identification of objectives

D.

Likelihood should receive greater consideration than impact

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Questions 141

Options:

A.

Reviewing quality department survey results, which show 96% of employees believe all defective products are removed prior To shipping.

B.

Physically inspecting a sample of completed processing cycles for detective products prior to shipment.

C.

Observing employees while they raped products for defects

D.

Reviewing a quality report provided by management mat snows 13 products were identified and removed during me most recent processing cycle

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Questions 142

During follow-up, the chief audit executive (CAE) is having a discussion with management about the internal audit team's recommendations related to a significant issue Management accepted the issue but took no remedial action What is the next step for the CAE?

Options:

A.

The CAE should reassess and validate the risk tolerance policy

B.

The CAE should escalate the issue to senior management .

C.

The CAE should reiterate the internal audit team's recommendations to management .

D.

The CAE should grant management more time to implement the recommendation and check the status of the issue during the next scheduled follow-up.

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Questions 143

Which of the following statements is false regarding roles and responsibilities pertaining to risk management and control?

Options:

A.

Senior management is charged with overseeing the establishment risk management and control processes.

B.

The chief audit executive is responsible for overseeing the evaluation risk management and control processes.

C.

Operating managers are responsible for assessing risks and controls in their departments.

D.

Internal auditors provide assurance about risk management and control process effectiveness.

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Questions 144

An internal audit activity is planning its first audit of IT shared services. Which of the following controls would typically be evaluated first?

Options:

A.

Entity-level controls

B.

Application controls

C.

General controls.

D.

Transaction controls

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Questions 145

When developing the scope of an audit engagement, which of the following would the internal auditor typically not need to consider?

Options:

A.

The need and availability of automated support.

B.

The potential impact of key risks.

C.

The expected outcomes and deliverables.

D.

The operational and geographic boundaries.

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Questions 146

Internal audit staff lacks the expertise to perform a fraud investigation engagement stemming from a whistleblowing incident. Which of the following is the most appropriate

option for the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

Appoint an independent fraud investigation specialist to work with the selected internal auditors.

B.

Organize in-house fraud investigation training sessions for selected internal auditors.

C.

Assign an experienced auditor to the engagement for a development opportunity.

D.

Hire a new internal auditor who possesses fraud investigation experience.

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Questions 147

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal controls?

Options:

A.

For assurance engagements, internal auditors should plan to assess the effectiveness of all entity-level controls.

B.

Poorly designed or deficient entity-level controls can prevent well-designed process controls from working as intended.

C.

During engagement planning, internal auditors should not discuss the identified key risks and controls with management of the area under review, to prevent tipping off probable audit tests.

D.

Reviewing process maps and flowcharts is an appropriate method for the internal auditor to identify all key risks and controls during engagement planning.

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Questions 148

Which of the following is the advantage of using internal control questionnaires (ICQs) as part of a preliminary survey for an engagement?

Options:

A.

ICQs provide testimonial evidence.

B.

ICQs are efficient.

C.

ICQs provide tangible evidence to be quantified.

D.

ICQs put observations into perspective.

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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part2
Exam Name: Practice of Internal Auditing
Last Update: Mar 26, 2025
Questions: 495
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