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250-580 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

How does IPS check custom signatures?

Options:

A.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine continues checking for other signatures.

B.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine restarts checking for signatures.

C.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine stops checking other signatures.

D.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine logs the other signatures.

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Questions 5

Which type of security threat is used by attackers to exploit vulnerable applications?

Options:

A.

Lateral Movement

B.

Privilege Escalation

C.

Credential Access

D.

Command and Control

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Questions 6

The SES Intrusion Prevention System has blocked an intruder's attempt to establish an IRC connection inside the firewall. Which Advanced Firewall Protection setting should an administrator enable to prevent the intruder's system from communicating with the network after the IPS detection?

Options:

A.

Enable port scan detection

B.

Automatically block an attacker's IP address

C.

Block all traffic until the firewall starts and after the firewall stops

D.

Enable denial of service detection

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Questions 7

What happens when a device fails a Host Integrity check?

Options:

A.

An antimalware scan is initiated

B.

The device is restarted

C.

The device is quarantined

D.

An administrative notification is logged

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Questions 8

Which antimalware intensity level is defined by the following: "Blocks files that are most certainly bad or potentially bad files results in a comparable number of false positives and false negatives."

Options:

A.

Level 6

B.

Level 5

C.

Level 2

D.

Level 1

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Questions 9

What EDR feature provides endpoint activity recorder data for a file hash?

Options:

A.

Process Dump

B.

Entity Dump

C.

Hash Dump

D.

Full Dump

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Questions 10

What EDR function minimizes the risk of an endpoint infecting other resources in the environment?

Options:

A.

Quarantine

B.

Block

C.

Deny List

D.

Firewall

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Questions 11

What is the function of Symantec Insight?

Options:

A.

Provides reputation ratings for structured data

B.

Enhances the capability of Group Update Providers (GUP)

C.

Increases the efficiency and effectiveness of LiveUpdate

D.

Provides reputation ratings for binary executables

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Questions 12

On which platform is LiveShell available?

Options:

A.

Windows

B.

All

C.

Linux

D.

Mac

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Questions 13

Which type of communication is blocked, when isolating the endpoint by clicking on the isolate button in SEDR?

Options:

A.

All non-SEP and non-SEDR network communications

B.

All network communications

C.

Only SEP and SEDR network communications

D.

Only Web and UNC network communications

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Questions 14

The Behavioral Heat Map indicates that a specific application and a specific behavior are never used together. What action can be safely set for the application behavior in a Behavioral Isolation policy?

Options:

A.

Deny

B.

Allow

C.

Delete

D.

Monitor

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Questions 15

Which two (2) instances could cause Symantec Endpoint Protection to be unable to remediate a file? (Select two.)

Options:

A.

Another scan is in progress.

B.

The detected file is in use.

C.

There are insufficient file permissions.

D.

The file is marked for deletion by Windows on restart.

E.

The file has good reputation.

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Questions 16

Which Incident View widget shows the parent-child relationship of related security events?

Options:

A.

The Incident Summary Widget

B.

The Process Lineage Widget

C.

The Events Widget

D.

The Incident Graph Widget

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Questions 17

What is an appropriate use of a file fingerprint list?

Options:

A.

Allow unknown files to be downloaded with Insight

B.

Prevent programs from running

C.

Prevent Antivirus from scanning a file

D.

Allow files to bypass Intrusion Prevention detection

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Questions 18

How should an administrator set up an alert to be notified when manual remediation is needed on an endpoint?

Options:

A.

Add a Single Risk Event notification and specify "Left Alone" for the action taken. Choose to log the notification and send an e-mail to the system administrators.

B.

Add a Client security alert notification and specify "Left Alone" for the action taken. Choose to log the notification and send an e-mail to the system administrators.

C.

Add a System event notification and specify "Left Alone" for the action taken. Choose to log the notification and send an e-mail to the system administrators.

D.

Add a New risk detected notification and specify "Left Alone" for the action taken. Choose to log the notification and send an emailto the system administrators.

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Questions 19

What is a feature of Cynic?

Options:

A.

Local Sandboxing

B.

Forwarding event data to Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)

C.

Cloud Sandboxing

D.

Customizable OS Images

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Questions 20

Which Endpoint Setting should an administrator utilize to locate unmanaged endpoints on a network subnet?

Options:

A.

Device Discovery

B.

Endpoint Enrollment

C.

Discover and Deploy

D.

Discover Endpoints

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Questions 21

Which Firewall rule components should an administrator configure to blockfacebook.comuse during business hours?

Options:

A.

Host(s), Network Interface, and Network Service

B.

Application, Host(s), and Network Service

C.

Action, Hosts(s), and Schedule

D.

Action, Application, and Schedule

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Questions 22

In what order should an administrator configure the integration between SEDR and Symantec Endpoint Protection in order to maximize their benefits?

Options:

A.

Synapse, ECC, then Insight Proxy

B.

ECC, Synapse, then Insight Proxy

C.

Insight Proxy, Synapse, then ECC

D.

ECC, Insight Proxy, then Synapse

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Questions 23

An organization identifies a threat in its environment and needs to limit the spread of the threat. How should the SEP Administrator block the threat using Application and Device Control?

Options:

A.

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on the file fingerprint.

B.

Gather the process name of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on the device ID type.

C.

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that uses regular expression matching.

D.

Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on specific arguments.

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Questions 24

How does IPS check custom signatures?

Options:

A.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine continues checking for other signatures.

B.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine restarts checking for signatures.

C.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine stops checking other signatures.

D.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine logs the other signatures.

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Questions 25

What should an administrator utilize to identify devices on a Mac?

Options:

A.

UseDevViewerwhen the Device is connected.

B.

Use Devicelnfo when the Device is connected.

C.

UseDevice Managerwhen the Device is connected.

D.

UseGatherSymantecInfowhen the Device is connected.

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Questions 26

The Security Status on the console home page is failing to alert a Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) administrator when virus definitions are out of date.

How should the SEP administrator enable the Security Status alert?

Options:

A.

Lower the Security Status thresholds

B.

Raise the Security Status thresholds

C.

Change the Notifications setting to "Show all notifications"

D.

Change the Action Summary display to "By number of computers"

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Questions 27

What feature is used to get a comprehensive picture of infected endpoint activity?

Options:

A.

Entity View

B.

Process View

C.

Full Dump

D.

Endpoint Dump

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Questions 28

What does an end-user receive when an administrator utilizes the Invite User feature to distribute the SES client?

Options:

A.

An email with the SES_setup.zip file attached

B.

An email with a link to register on the ICDm user portal

C.

An email with a link to directly download the SES client

D.

An email with a link to a KB article explaining how to install the SES Agent

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Questions 29

Using a hybrid environment, if a SEPM-managed endpoint cannot connect to the SEPM, how quickly can an administrator receive a security alert if the endpoint is using a public hot-spot?

Options:

A.

After a VPN is activated with Network Integrity

B.

When the client connects to SEPM

C.

At the next heartbeat

D.

Immediately

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Questions 30

Which rule types should be at the bottom of the list when an administrator adds device control rules?

Options:

A.

Specific "device type" rules

B.

Specific "device model" rules

C.

General "catch all" rules

D.

General "brand defined" rules

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Questions 31

Which option should an administrator utilize to temporarily or permanently block a file?

Options:

A.

Delete

B.

Hide

C.

Encrypt

D.

Deny List

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Questions 32

Which Symantec Endpoint Protection technology blocks a downloaded program from installing browser plugins?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Prevention

B.

SONAR

C.

Application and Device Control

D.

Tamper Protection

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Questions 33

How would an administrator specify which remote consoles and servers have access to the management server?

Options:

A.

Edit theServer Propertiesand under theGeneral tab,change theServer Communication Permission.

B.

Edit theCommunication Settingsfor the Group under theClients tab.

C.

EdittheExternal Communication Settingsfor the Group under theClients tab.

D.

Edit theSite Propertiesand under theGeneral tab,change the server priority.

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Questions 34

Which SES advanced feature detects malware by consulting a training model composed of known good and known bad files?

Options:

A.

Signatures

B.

Reputation

C.

Artificial Intelligence

D.

Advanced Machine Learning

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Questions 35

What permissions does the Security Analyst Role have?

Options:

A.

Trigger dumps, get & quarantine files, enroll new sites

B.

Search endpoints, trigger dumps, get & quarantine files

C.

Trigger dumps, get & quarantine files, create device groups

D.

Search endpoints, trigger dumps, create policies

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Questions 36

What prevention technique does Threat Defense for Active Directory use to expose attackers?

Options:

A.

Process Monitoring

B.

Obfuscation

C.

Honeypot Traps

D.

Packet Tracing

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Questions 37

Why is Active Directory a part of nearly every targeted attack?

Options:

A.

AD administrationis managed by weak legacy APIs.

B.

AD is, by design, an easily accessed flat file name space directory database

C.

AD exposes all of its identities, applications, and resources to every endpoint in the network

D.

AD user attribution includes hidden elevated admin privileges

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Questions 38

Which ICDm role is required in order to use LiveShell?

Options:

A.

Security Analyst

B.

Administrator

C.

Viewer

D.

Any

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Questions 39

If an administrator enables the setting to manage policies from the cloud, what steps must be taken to reverse this process?

Options:

A.

Navigate to ICDm > Enrollment and disable the setting

B.

Unenroll the SEPM > Disable the setting > Re-enroll the SEPM

C.

Revoke policies from ICDm

D.

Revoke policies from SEPM

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Questions 40

What information is required to calculate storage requirements?

Options:

A.

Number of endpoints, available bandwidth, available disk space, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

B.

Number of endpoints, EAR data per endpoint per day, number of days to retain, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

C.

Number of endpoints, available bandwidth, number of days to retain, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

D.

Number of endpoints, EAR data per endpoint per day, available disk space, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

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Questions 41

A user is unknowingly about to connect to a malicious website and download a known threat within a .rar file. All Symantec Endpoint Protection technologies are installed on the client's system.

In which feature set order must the threat pass through to successfully infect the system?

Options:

A.

Download Insight, Firewall, IPS

B.

Firewall, IPS, Download Insight

C.

IPS, Firewall, Download Insight

D.

Download Insight, IPS, Firewall

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Questions 42

What happens when an administrator adds a file to the deny list?

Options:

A.

The file is assigned to a chosen Deny List policy

B.

The file is assigned to the Deny List task list

C.

The file is automatically quarantined

D.

The file is assigned to the default Deny List policy

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Questions 43

An Incident Responder has determined that an endpoint is compromised by a malicious threat. What SEDR feature would be utilized first to contain the threat?

Options:

A.

File Deletion

B.

Incident Manager

C.

Isolation

D.

Endpoint Activity Recorder

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Questions 44

Which statement demonstrates how Symantec EDR hunts and detects IoCs in the environment?

Options:

A.

Searching the EDR database and multiple data sources directly

B.

Viewing PowerShell processes

C.

Detecting Memory Exploits in conjunction with SEP

D.

Detonating suspicious files using cloud-based or on-premises sandboxing

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Questions 45

What does a ranged query return or exclude?

Options:

A.

Data matching the exact field names and their values

B.

Data matching a regular expression

C.

Data falling between two specified values of a given field

D.

Data based on specific values for a given field

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Exam Code: 250-580
Exam Name: Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist
Last Update: Nov 16, 2024
Questions: 150
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