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CSQA Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

A measure can be reliable, but invalid. An unreliable measure cannot be valid.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 5

Which ISO model covers the software life cycle from concept through retirement?

Options:

A.

ISO / IEC 15504

B.

ISO 9001

C.

ISO / IEC 12207

D.

ISO 9000 Family of Standards

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Questions 6

SEI's CMMi maturity level 5 is also known as:

Options:

A.

Managed

B.

Defined

C.

Optimizing

D.

Quantitatively Managed

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Questions 7

Cause-and-effect graphing is a tool used to:

Options:

A.

Trace requirements

B.

Help determine root causes of problems in processes

C.

Determine what requirements have been covered

D.

Graph defects uncovered by cause

E.

Identifies the routines in which errors occur

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Questions 8

Statement Coverage is:

Options:

A.

White-Box Testing

B.

Black-Box Testing

C.

Tree Testing

D.

Static Testing

E.

Functional Testing

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Questions 9

If you were to download a software package, which had been developed and placed on the internet for general usage, the one thing you could not control is:

Options:

A.

Ability to test the software

B.

Defining the requirements

C.

Determining how the software will be used

D.

Training IT staff in how to use the software

E.

Deciding not to use the software

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Questions 10

Which of the following is NOT an example of Programmed Controls?

Options:

A.

A Control Total

B.

A Hash Total

C.

Logic Test

D.

Limit Checks

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Questions 11

Responsibility for resolving a noncompliance may be enforced automatically through____________.

Options:

A.

Processes

B.

Templates

C.

Checklists

D.

Controls

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Questions 12

To validate that the COTS software will meet the functional and structural needs of the user, both ________________ and _______________ Testing is performed.

Options:

A.

Correctness; Maintainability

B.

Correctness; Reliability

C.

Security; Reliability

D.

Reusability; Flexibility

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Questions 13

When should the Test Manager or Test Team Lead join the Software Project Team?

Options:

A.

By the beginning of the requirements phase

B.

After the requirements have been gathered

C.

When the design phase begins

D.

Before the developers start coding

E.

Before any testing starts

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Questions 14

Evaluating and quantifying the risks, controls, and vulnerabilities is called _________ .

Options:

A.

Risk Analysis

B.

Risk Planning

C.

Risk

D.

Risk Management

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Questions 15

____________ provides teams an opportunity to reach high-quality decisions with total team commitment.

Options:

A.

Consensus

B.

Compatibility

C.

Agreement

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Questions 16

Function points are used to measure what aspects of software?

Options:

A.

Complexity

B.

Quality Function Deployment

C.

Defect Rates

D.

Number of Requirements

E.

Size

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Questions 17

Compliance Assessments can be done through:

Options:

A.

First party audit

B.

Second party audit

C.

Third party audit

D.

All of the above

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Questions 18

Which of the following is not one of the four major purposes of recording defects?

Options:

A.

To ensure the defect is corrected

B.

To determine who made the defect

C.

To report the status of the application

D.

To gather statistics used to develop defect expectations and future applications

E.

To improve the software development process

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Questions 19

Which of the following factors should NOT be considered when defining a Control Method?

Options:

A.

Risk Severity

B.

Cost, Effort, and Cycle Time Impact

C.

Strength of the Control Method

D.

Unavailability of Appropriate Resources and People

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Questions 20

How do you objectively measure operational reliability?

Options:

A.

Customer satisfaction

B.

Mean time between failure

C.

Number of errors in outputs

D.

Function points per person month

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Questions 21

If an organization was to categorize risks as critical, major, or minor what aspect of Risk Management would that be called?

Options:

A.

Risk Prioritization

B.

Risk Response Planning

C.

Risk Resolution

D.

Risk Analysis

E.

Risk Monitoring

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Questions 22

Measurement has a high cost; too much investment is required and the return is too low.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 23

As per Crosby, the first step for building an effective quality program is to:

Options:

A.

Set quality goals

B.

Set up quality measurement system

C.

Establish management commitment

D.

Establish quality function

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Questions 24

In control charts, accepted practice uses a width of _________________________around the population mean (?) to establish the control limits.

Options:

A.

Plus or minus one standard deviation

B.

Plus or minus two standard deviations

C.

Plus or minus three standard deviations

D.

Plus or minus four standard deviations

E.

Plus or minus five standard deviations

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Questions 25

Which item(s) below are measures of central tendency?

Options:

A.

Mean

B.

Median

C.

Mode

D.

All of the above

E.

A and C above

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Questions 26

Which technique is used to develop a common vision of what a process should look like and depicts processes, their relationships, and their owners?

Options:

A.

Flowchart

B.

Process Map

C.

Nominal Group Technique

D.

Pie Chart

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Questions 27

The objective of integrating business and quality planning in a single planning cycle is to ensure that:

Options:

A.

Resources should be involved in both strategic and tactical planning

B.

Adequate resources and time are available to perform the quality activities.

C.

Individuals executing the business plan cannot differentiate the quality planning from the business planning.

D.

Both business staff and the quality staff should be involved in IT planning

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Questions 28

The Quality Manager is in the business of selling quality.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 29

Organizations use many ways to determine the size of a program. Which of the following methods for measuring the size of a program can be used before the coding process is complete?

Options:

A.

Lines of code

B.

Programmer hours expended to write the code

C.

Function points

D.

Cyclomatic complexity

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Questions 30

Identifying, analyzing, and prioritizing risks require knowledge of the business functions and user involvement. The Project Management Institute's Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK) defines four risk management processes. List and describe the four processes.

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Options:

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Questions 31

Define measure and metric. Give two examples of a measure and two examples of a metric.

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Options:

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Questions 32

CobiT enables an enterprise to implement effective governance over IT. Briefly describe the CobiT Model.

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Options:

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Questions 33

Before beginning a measurement program, there are four prerequisite steps that are necessary to help position the measurement program for success within the organization. Describe each of these prerequisite steps and explain why these steps are important?

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Options:

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Questions 34

Explain why risk prioritization is important and give two methods used to prioritize risk.

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Options:

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Questions 35

The user of the software product is not the only customer of a software project. List three other customer categories or groups, and explain how their perspectives should be represented in the various phases of the project life cycle process.

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Options:

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Questions 36

Management commitment is the single most important requirement for successful implementation of quality management.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 37

Which of the following are considered distinguishing characteristics of Risk?

Options:

A.

Situational

B.

Time Based

C.

Magnitude Dependent

D.

Value Based

E.

All the above

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Questions 38

_________ includes periodically assessing project status, reassessing the documented risks, examining executed strategies that succeeded or failed, and considering new risks.

Options:

A.

Risk Monitoring

B.

Risk Resolution

C.

Risk Response Planning

D.

Risk Prioritization

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Questions 39

Who is responsible to ensure that the organization has sufficiently trained personnel to protect its IT resources?

Options:

A.

CIO / IT Director

B.

Management

C.

Delivery Manager

D.

Director

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Questions 40

The process of implementing a new or improved approach is called:

Options:

A.

Change Process

B.

Improvement Process

C.

Deployment Process

D.

Definition Process

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Questions 41

One of the critical success factors in acquiring COTS software is that the vendor will continue to provide additional features in the future. This critical success factor is commonly referred to as:

Options:

A.

Ease of Use

B.

Expandability

C.

Maintainability

D.

Transferability

E.

Reliability

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Questions 42

The first step in the Complaint-Resolution Process is:

Options:

A.

Gather detailed supporting information

B.

Establish an action plan

C.

Judge the complaints validity

D.

Get on the customer's wavelength

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Questions 43

As per the 'Quality Leader Behavior Model', quality leader should NOT:

Options:

A.

Empower others

B.

Supervise and identify defects

C.

Coach, train and educate

D.

Remove obstacles to performance

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Questions 44

Project objectives and goals expressed in quantitative terms is part of which planning activity?

Options:

A.

Business / Activity Planning

B.

Environment Planning

C.

Objective / Goal Planning

D.

Policies / Procedures Planning

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Questions 45

The factors that need to be addressed during contract negotiations for software developed by an outside organization include the following, except for:

Options:

A.

Adequacy of Control

B.

Life of Contract

C.

Warranty

D.

Multi-Contractor Problem Resolution

E.

Penalties for Non-performance

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Questions 46

Which of the following is an important component of a complaint resolution process?

Options:

A.

Get on your opposing party's wavelength

B.

Get the facts

C.

Establish and initiate an action program

D.

Follow-up

E.

All of the above

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Questions 47

If you had seven programs and the size in function points were 80, 20, 20, 60, 40, 50, and 150. What is the median size of those seven programs in function points?

Options:

A.

20

B.

30

C.

40

D.

50

E.

60

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Questions 48

As the maturity level increases, the cost per unit of work increases.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 49

Which of the following models uses this four part cyclE. (part one - plan and organize; part two - acquire and implement; part three - deliver and support; part four - monitor)?

Options:

A.

COSO Model

B.

ISO Model

C.

Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award Model

D.

Enterprise Risk and Management Model

E.

CobiT Model

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Questions 50

As per Crosby, to reduce Total Product Cost, the best approach is to:

Options:

A.

Increase prevention costs

B.

Increase appraisal and failure costs

C.

Reduce prevention costs

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Questions 51

If your customer complains that you made an error, you need to do the following:

Options:

A.

If you are wrong, admit the error

B.

Negotiate a satisfactory resolution

C.

State solution and get agreement

D.

Take action to implement a solution

E.

All of the above

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Questions 52

Three fundamental types of mistakes that IT leaders make are:

Options:

A.

Isolation, lack of modeling, lack of business perspective

B.

Isolation, inability to reward, lack of dedication

C.

Isolation, inability to reward, lack of business perspective

D.

None of the above

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Questions 53

As processes mature, there is a decrease in cycle time to produce a product.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 54

Determining that the COTS software selected is compatible with the acquiring organization's computer environment addresses:

Options:

A.

Compatibility with other COTS software packages

B.

Compatibility with the acquiring organization's computer language

C.

Compatibility with the SEI CMMI level of the organization that built the COTS software

D.

Compatibility of the acquiring organization's acceptance test process

E.

Compatibility with the acquiring organization's hardware and operating system

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Questions 55

Customer software requirements are an attribute of a:

Options:

A.

Product / Service

B.

Process

C.

Metric

D.

Architecture

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Questions 56

Which of the following question(s) is associated with the post-implementation review?

Options:

A.

Is the quality what we wanted?

B.

Did the process work?

C.

Did buying a tool help improve the process?

D.

Did automation help speed up the process?

E.

All of the above

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Questions 57

Which of the following would be associated with contracted software developed by a contractor in another country?

Options:

A.

Requirements missing

B.

Customer standards may not be met

C.

Quality practice not specified

D.

Communication barriers

E.

Training and deployment specified

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Questions 58

Causes of variation that are typically "external" to the process are referred to as:

Options:

A.

Special Causes of Variation

B.

Common Causes of Variation

C.

Separate Causes of Variation

D.

None of the above

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Questions 59

With the workbench concept, tools can support:

Options:

A.

Both DO and CHECK procedures

B.

Only the DO procedures

C.

The rework initiative

D.

Only the CHECK procedures

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Questions 60

When developing testing tactics for a project, which of the following should be considered?

Options:

A.

Determine the project scope

B.

Determine the type of development project

C.

Identify the tactical risks

D.

A and C

E.

A, B, and C

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Questions 61

The plan of organization in methods and procedures adopted by management to ensure that resource use is consistent with laws, regulations, and policies; that resources are safeguarded against waste, loss, and misuse; and that reliable data are obtained, maintained, and fairly disclosed in reports. The previous statement is the definition of:

Options:

A.

Auditing

B.

Internal Control

C.

Infrastructure

D.

Truth in Reporting

E.

Risk Analysis

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Questions 62

At low levels of process maturity, people believe they are subjectively evaluated and focus their attention on:

Options:

A.

Specific Standards

B.

Work Environment

C.

Organizational Politics

D.

HR Policies

E.

None of the above

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Questions 63

Quality cannot be delegated.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 64

Mode is the measures of central tendency. What does it represent?

Options:

A.

Average of the items in the population

B.

Sum of the items in the population

C.

Items are repeated most frequently

D.

Item at which half the items in the population are below this item and half the items are above this item

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Questions 65

A quality tool used to determine and understand the forces that drive and restrain a change.

Options:

A.

Force Field Analysis

B.

Cause and Effect Diagram

C.

Matrix

D.

Playscript

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Questions 66

An objective measure is a measure that can be obtained by:

Options:

A.

An individual's perception

B.

Counting

C.

All the above

D.

None of the above

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Questions 67

Measurement provides ____________ feedback to an organization about whether it is achieving its goals.

Options:

A.

Qualitative

B.

Subjective

C.

Objective

D.

Quantitative

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Questions 68

Determining which risks are likely to affect the project and documenting the characteristics of each is called ________ .

Options:

A.

Risk Assessment

B.

Risk Management

C.

Risk

D.

Risk Identification

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Questions 69

Risk management is not an independent auditing process.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 70

Yield or productivity is the example of ___________ indicators.

Options:

A.

Process Input

B.

Process Output

C.

Process Definition

D.

Process Layout

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Questions 71

If you acquired COTS software and were attending a demonstration of that software, what aspects of that software would you want to observe during the demonstration?

Options:

A.

Understandability

B.

Clarity of Communication

C.

Functionality of the Software

D.

Effectiveness of Help Routines

E.

All the above

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Questions 72

The development of the approach for process deployment is much harder than the actual deployment of the process.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 73

Which of the following planning activities is associated with the quality planning question "where do we want to go"?

Options:

A.

Capabilities and Opportunity Planning

B.

Policies and Procedure Planning

C.

Priorities and Schedules Planning

D.

Objectives and Goals Planning

E.

Budgeting and Resource Planning

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Questions 74

If you want to ensure that individuals can effectively perform work processes, which activity would you implement to achieve that goal?

Options:

A.

Measurement

B.

Team Building

C.

Performance Reviews

D.

Career Development

E.

Training

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Questions 75

In which phase of the Quality Function's maturation does the organization's objectives move from Quality Control to Quality Assurance?

Options:

A.

Initial Phase

B.

Intermediate Phase

C.

Final Phase

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Questions 76

ISO / IEC 15504: Process Assessment is formerly known as:

Options:

A.

PDCA

B.

SPICE

C.

ITIL

D.

ISMS

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Questions 77

Which of the following Dynamic Testing techniques produces the highest defect yield?

Options:

A.

Sliver Testing

B.

Black-Box Testing

C.

White-Box Testing

D.

Thread Testing

E.

Incremental Testing

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Questions 78

From a control perspective, detective controls are only effective when what other types of controls are implemented?

Options:

A.

Environmental Controls

B.

Preventive Controls

C.

Training Controls

D.

Corrective Controls

E.

Audit Controls

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Questions 79

You have observed a high failure rate in production due to defects in the computer programs. If you follow good quality practices, the approach you would take to reduce the incidence of failure is to:

Options:

A.

Initiate code inspections to identify defects in code

B.

Increase the type and extent of testing to remove defects before production

C.

Classify and count the defects so that you can identify and eliminate the root cause

D.

Encourage the programmers to try harder to make fewer defects

E.

Include individual defect rates in the performance appraisal system

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Questions 80

Which has frequently been referred to as the most difficult task in getting people to use the process?

Options:

A.

Determining the need for a process

B.

Writing the process

C.

Testing the process

D.

Deploying the process

E.

Improving the process

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Questions 81

Correlation between process maturity and an organization's willingness to embrace change can be described as:

Options:

A.

Accelerates at the lower levels and lags during the higher levels of maturity

B.

Lags slightly at the lower levels and accelerates during the higher levels of maturity

C.

Accelerates at same rate at all levels

D.

None of the above

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Questions 82

QA is a management function with emphasis on the process producing the product.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 83

Which of the following is NOT an example of a key indicator?

Options:

A.

Productivity

B.

Customer Satisfaction

C.

Estimated Size

D.

Defect Rates

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Questions 84

When maturing the management process, movement will be from:

Options:

A.

Product Focus to Process Focus

B.

Process Focus to Product Focus

C.

Team Focus to Product Focus

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Questions 85

It is important in developing a contract that the contract provisions are fair to both parties. The reason for this is:

Options:

A.

Contractual costs will be reduced

B.

Problems will not occur during development

C.

Acceptance testing will not be needed

D.

The probability of one party terminating the contract during execution will be minimized

E.

The developed software will perform better

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Questions 86

The person who accepts personal responsibility for the success of quality management without being assigned the responsibility is called____________ .

Options:

A.

Quality Analyst

B.

Quality Manager

C.

Quality Champion

D.

Quality Controller

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Questions 87

Critical success factors for purchased software should be defined from the perspective of :

Options:

A.

The User

B.

Quality Assurance Personnel

C.

Computer Programmers

D.

Computer Operations Personnel

E.

IT Management

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Questions 88

What is independent monitoring and who can perform it?

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Questions 89

There are three types of enforcement actions; automated enforcement, self-enforcement, and supervisory enforcement. Which of these is the best enforcement action and why? Give an example that illustrates why it is the best.

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Questions 90

What are the three components of Cost of Quality (COQ)? For each of the COQ components, list two relevant activities within the software life cycle?

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Questions 91

There are two definitions of quality. Define and describe those two definitions of quality. Then list four approaches that you believe, if implemented, would help reconcile those two definitions so that they, in fact, became the same definition of quality.

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Questions 92

The project team in the XYZ Company's IT Department has been provided with a system development methodology. The methodology details the standards and procedures that are to be followed in building an application system. A project team assigned to build an application system followed those procedures exactly and met the standards. However, when the project was completed it was late, over-budget, and the users of that application were dissatisfied.

Provide four reasons that could have caused this project to fail.

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Questions 93

You have been appointed the Information Security Manager of the organization. List and give details the three steps for adequate 'security awareness program'.

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Questions 94

Many organizations have chosen to outsource all or part of their IT services. Assume you are an IT quality assurance manager and you have been asked by senior management in your organization about outsourcing. They want to know the answer to these two questions:

1. What are the major advantages to outsourcing software development?

2. What are the major disadvantages to outsourcing software development?

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Questions 95

You have been asked to develop a measurement for quantifying software size. Describe what you will use and why you have chosen that measurement.

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Questions 96

One of the objectives of Quality Assurance is to reduce the variability in process execution. There are two causes of variation in a process, common cause and special cause. First, define those two terms, special cause and common cause of process variation, and second, for a software acceptance test process, give examples of two common causes of variation and two special causes of variation that might occur in a software acceptance testing project.

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Questions 97

One of the main objective of the quality assurance function is to reduce the variability in process execution. There are two causes of variation in a process, common cause and special cause. Describe three ways for reducing common causes of variation.

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Questions 98

Good quality management principles state that any organization committed to quality should have a IT Quality Plan in place. What are five key points that the IT Quality Plan should include?

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Questions 99

Explain the difference between verification and validation. List two verification techniques and two validation techniques.

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Questions 100

You plan to meet with a project’s business analyst and test team lead to explain why they need to implement static testing techniques early in the product life cycle. Describe below how you plan to describe the benefits of static tests and list at least two types of static tests they should implement.

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Questions 101

Briefly describe the three categories of Quality Tools and give two examples of tools in each of these categories.

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Questions 102

Describe the difference between an "objective" measure and a "subjective" measure. Give two examples of an objective measure and two examples of a subjective measure.

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Questions 103

What strategy should a Quality Manager recommend to senior management, if the organization wants to move from maturity level 2 to a higher level? Why?

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Questions 104

In addition to meeting business functions requirements, critical success factors must be present in COTS software for it to be successful. List and describe five critical success factors that should be included when evaluating COTS software.

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Questions 105

Your manager has been reading about the “Toyota production system,” also known as “Just-In-Time” (JIT) production. She has asked you to suggest ways that you might employ JIT principles in the IT area. Briefly describe what you would suggest.

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Questions 106

In planning for risk response, what are the three categories which can be used for effective planning?

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Questions 107

When acquiring COTS software, it is important to see a demonstration of the software. There are several aspects of the COTS software that should be observed during the demonstration. Describe three aspects of the software you would specifically want to observe and explain why.

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Questions 108

The Quality Management Infrastructure is made up of three levels: the Quality Council, Management Committees, and Teams/Work Groups. Describe who typically makes up each of these three levels in the QM Infrastructure (e.g., top executives) and describe the purpose of each level.

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Questions 109

Your senior management wants to initiate a major process change in the organization and has asked you how to get people to follow the changed approach to the process. What tactics would you recommend for deploying the changed approach?

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Options:

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Questions 110

Describe the five characteristics of a Risk.

Type your answer in the box provided. Use options on the box toolbar to edit your response as needed before moving to the next question.

Options:

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Questions 111

Describe three behaviors of a traditional management philosophy and describe how the quality management philosophy's behavior would be different.

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Options:

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Questions 112

The benefits from a measurement program are not obtained until the measures/metrics are used. Describe four major uses of measurement data.

Type your answer in the box provided. Use options on the box toolbar to edit your response as needed before moving to the next question.

Options:

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Questions 113

Your manager has ask you to help develop a well defined continuous improvement process that can be used by the various teams in the IT department. Use the PDCA concept to provide a detailed outline of your continuous improvement process.

Type your answer in the box provided. Use options on the box toolbar to edit your response as needed before moving to the next question.

Options:

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Questions 114

Cooperation is required to improve quality and to implement quality management.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 115

The check sheet is used to record data gathered over a period of time to determine frequency of an event.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 116

In a software system a control implemented to protect the security of the system is:

Options:

A.

Part of the overall system of internal controls

B.

Only part of an organization’s system of management controls

C.

Only part of the organization’s transaction process controls

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Questions 117

When building a quality environment, one of top management's major responsibilities must be:

Options:

A.

Setting the ground rules of who can participate

B.

Developing the vision / values and mission statement for the company

C.

Determining who should sit on each of the quality boards

D.

Ensuring that the quality meetings do not last more than one hour

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Questions 118

In a Waterfall Development Model, most risk management activity occurs close to milestones.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 119

In which company was the concept known as "Just in Time" first implemented?

Options:

A.

Toyota

B.

Motorola

C.

Honda

D.

Microsoft

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Questions 120

Risk has two attributes. One is magnitude and the other is:

Options:

A.

Frequency

B.

Cause

C.

Type

D.

Use

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Questions 121

During a review, both the producer and product are reviewed.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 122

Which of the following quality control activities is most effective in uncovering defects?

Options:

A.

Inspections

B.

Unit Testing

C.

Integration Testing

D.

System Testing

E.

Acceptance Testing

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Questions 123

Which of the following is the correct definition of productivity?

Options:

A.

The ratio of output of a process to input

B.

The work effort that produces a product

C.

The step-by-step methods followed to ensure that standards are met

D.

The length of time to produce a product

E.

The ratio of input of a process to output

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Questions 124

The concept of "just in time", as pioneered by Toyota, is only applicable to inventory control.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 125

What type of testing evaluates the completeness of the documentation associated with a software application?

Options:

A.

Verification testing

B.

Validation testing

C.

Testing by observing the demonstration of the software

D.

Parallel testing the operational COTS software versus the current method of processing

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Questions 126

Which of the following is not a process within Level 4 for maturing Quality Assurance Processes?

Options:

A.

Processes Aligned to Objectives

B.

Processes Integrated

C.

Process Optimization

D.

Process History Database

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Questions 127

-- Exhibit –

-- Exhibit --

In the Cost of Quality diagram shown, the COQ cost labeled "A" represents:

Options:

A.

Prevention Costs

B.

Failure Costs

C.

Appraisal Costs

D.

Cost of Production

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Questions 128

The primary responsibility of a quality program, from a consumer's standpoint, is that the product should be:

Options:

A.

Gold plated

B.

Is completed on time

C.

Fit for use by the end user or consumer

D.

Does not exceed budgeted costs

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Questions 129

There is a strong correlation between process maturity and defect rates. As the process maturity level increases, the defect rate decreases.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 130

One of the most effective arguments for establishing an independent test group within an IT organization is:

Options:

A.

Programmers cannot be trusted

B.

It is difficult for people to find their own errors

C.

Programmers cannot be trained to test

D.

Organizational auditors like independent testing

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Questions 131

The following types of controls, which are designed to alert individuals to a process problem such as control totals assuring data transmissions are complete, are called:

Options:

A.

Preventive Controls

B.

Detective Controls

C.

Corrective Controls

D.

Quality Controls

E.

All of the above

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Questions 132

During the management cycle, which activity MUST be integrated with other activities because it is a continuous activity?

Options:

A.

Plan with Do, Check, and Act

B.

Act with Plan, Do, and Check

C.

Check with Plan, Do, and Act

D.

None of the above

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Questions 133

Which one of the following is a disadvantage of Functional Testing?

Options:

A.

Potential of missing logical errors in software

B.

Its tests do not ensure that user requirements have been met

C.

Its tests may not mimic real-world situations

D.

None of the above

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Questions 134

-- Exhibit –

-- Exhibit --

In the diagram, the sections of the diagram labeled "A" and "B" represent larger portions of "DO" and "CHECK". Note that the top of the diagram represents a more creative process and lower portion a more defined process.

Options:

A.

A = DO, B = CHECK

B.

A = CHECK, B = DO

C.

A and B are same

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Questions 135

Your manager describes his / her desires and intents concerning a process to you. The manager is describing the:

Options:

A.

Policy

B.

Standard

C.

Procedure

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Questions 136

Continuing process improvement techniques should be applied to which of the following IT work processes?

Options:

A.

Systems Development Process

B.

Software Testing Process

C.

Code Inspection Process

D.

Estimating Process

E.

All of the above

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Questions 137

Process ___________ allows priorities to be set for defining or improving processes.

Options:

A.

Execution

B.

Management

C.

Planning

D.

Monitoring

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Questions 138

Which of the following would be considered the lack of involvement by management to promote quality concepts?

Options:

A.

Unknown software defects in the production system

B.

Failure to enforce standards

C.

Lack of a quality vocabulary

D.

Lack of knowledge of the principles of quality

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Questions 139

According to quality experts, the most effective way to implement quality practices is:

Options:

A.

Top-down - management is the driver

B.

Bottom-up - workers put in good quality practices

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Questions 140

After establishing the team for conducting security baseline, the first step should be to:

Options:

A.

Set up the process

B.

Set the measures

C.

Set the requirements and goals

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Questions 141

The risk associated with replacing a team member would be characterized as:

Options:

A.

Time-Based

B.

Situational

C.

Interdependent

D.

Time-Based

E.

Value-Based

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Questions 142

In the new quality management philosophy, the emphasis must be on:

Options:

A.

Defect Identification

B.

Quality Control

C.

Reducing Rework

D.

Catching Defects

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Questions 143

In the PDCA cycle, if a check detects an abnormality, then record the abnormality and continue the work per the procedure.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 144

Tracking the status of each requirement throughout the development and test phases is called:

Options:

A.

Requirements Checking

B.

Requirements Verification

C.

In-Process Review

D.

Requirements Tracing

E.

Phase-End Review

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Questions 145

Tactical Planning answers the question:

Options:

A.

What to do?

B.

How to do it?

C.

What objectives need to be accomplished?

D.

How IT customers will be satisfied?

E.

How customer satisfaction will be exceeded?

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Questions 146

Which category of control methods is the most acceptable to the individual?

Options:

A.

Automatic

B.

Auditors

C.

Peer Reviews

D.

Supervisory

E.

Third Party

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Questions 147

At a minimum, the acceptance test for contracted software should validate:

Options:

A.

The documentation is consistent with the software execution

B.

The documentation is understandable

C.

Users will be adequately trained in the software

D.

It is operable within the operational constraints of the organization

E.

All of the above

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Questions 148

A snapshot of an organization's security program at a certain time is a:

Options:

A.

Security Model

B.

Security Baseline

C.

Security Risk

D.

Security Test Procedure

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Questions 149

Which level(s) of the organization should be involved in both establishing and using processes in their daily work?

Options:

A.

Senior

B.

Mid-level

C.

Junior

D.

All of the above

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Questions 150

In transaction processing, the accuracy and completeness of database storage, data security and privacy, error handling, backup, recovery, and retention is governed by:

Options:

A.

Transaction Origination Controls

B.

Transaction Processing Controls

C.

Transaction Output Controls

D.

Database Storage and Retrieval Controls

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Questions 151

A process is a vehicle of communication, specifying the methods used to produce:

Options:

A.

A Service

B.

A Product

C.

Both Product and Service

D.

None of the above

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Questions 152

Which one of the following is NOT a component of CMMi maturity levels?

Options:

A.

Common Practices

B.

Specific Goals

C.

Process Areas

D.

Generic Goals

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Questions 153

Which of the following defines special cause of variation?

Options:

A.

Variation between the upper and lower control limits

B.

Variation not present in the process

C.

Conditions that regularly contribute to variability

D.

Contributes a small portion to control variation of process outputs

E.

Regular contributors to variability

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Questions 154

Which of the following activities occur when the software developed by an outside organization is ready for delivery?

Options:

A.

Contractual Relations

B.

Acceptance Testing

C.

Operation and Maintenance

D.

B and C only

E.

A, B, and C

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Questions 155

The step which evaluates whether people possess the skills necessary to effectively use the COTS software in their day-to-day work is referred as:

Options:

A.

Demonstrate the Software in Operation

B.

Acceptance Test the Software Process

C.

Evaluate People Fit

D.

Define Critical Success Factor

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Questions 156

Attribute of a product or service is called:

Options:

A.

Process

B.

Six Sigma

C.

JIT

D.

Quality

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Questions 157

Process improvement activities should also be conducted as per a defined process.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 158

While unit testing should be done, it is not necessary to spend the time and effort to develop and document the unit test plan and cases because it is conducted by the developers themselves.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 159

Laws and regulations affecting the products produced and operated are generally addressed in which planning activity:

Options:

A.

Business or Activity Planning

B.

Environment Planning

C.

Capabilities Planning

D.

Assumptions Planning

E.

Policies Planning

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Questions 160

The rules used to evaluate products and identify non-conformance are:

Options:

A.

Audits

B.

Policies

C.

Standards

D.

Templates

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Questions 161

COTS software is normally developed prior to an organization selecting that software for its use.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 162

A subjective enforcement decision is when someone analyzes the situation and then makes a decision on whether or not to enforce the policy.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 163

It is very easy to distinguish between accidental loss and intentional loss, with respect to security activities.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 164

The two common types of Matrixes are:

Options:

A.

L-Type and Y-Type

B.

T-Type and X-Type

C.

L-Type and T-Type

D.

Y-Type and X-Type

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Questions 165

Security passwords should be changed:

Options:

A.

On a regular basis

B.

Whenever somebody leaves an area

C.

When password compromise is suspected

D.

All of the above

E.

None of the above

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Questions 166

Unit testing, system testing and user acceptance testing are examples of:

Options:

A.

Verification

B.

Validation

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Questions 167

The level of quality can vary significantly from project to project. These levels of quality, which can be quantified and measured, are called:

Options:

A.

Defect Density

B.

Quality Attributes

C.

Quality Control

D.

Quality Assurance

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Questions 168

Prerequisites for quality planning is / are:

Options:

A.

IT vision, mission, and goals documented

B.

Management support for planning

C.

Planners competent in the planning process

D.

All of the above

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Questions 169

In a cost-of-quality analysis, the costs required to avoid errors to do the job right the first time are called:

Options:

A.

Appraisal Costs

B.

Rework Costs

C.

Prevention Costs

D.

Direct Costs

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Questions 170

What is the correct definition for the term "testable requirements"?

Options:

A.

A requirement with a test

B.

A requirement with a minimum of two tests

C.

A requirement that can be validated to be incorrect or correct

D.

A requirement that will be tested during test execution

E.

A requirement that will be assigned to a tester to test

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Questions 171

Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of management committees (or process management committees)?

Options:

A.

Developing quality charter

B.

Deploying quality management practices

C.

Establish teams or work groups

D.

Defining mission and goals

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Questions 172

Which answer below is NOT one of the seven steps for implementing an IT quality function?

Options:

A.

Develop a charter

B.

Identify a quality manager

C.

Staff and train the quality function

D.

Audit the use of quality tools

E.

Build support for quality

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Questions 173

Internal control is not a serial process, where one component affects only the next. It is a multidirectional interactive process in which almost any component can and will influence another.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 174

The first step in establishing the strategy for process deployment is:

Options:

A.

Plan the deployment

B.

Set goals for deployment

C.

Identify deployment team

D.

Prioritize

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Questions 175

The effort required for testing a program to insure it performs its intended function is called:

Options:

A.

Correctness

B.

Reliability

C.

Testability

D.

Flexibility

E.

Efficiency

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Questions 176

Which is NOT commonly used to develop a baseline?

Options:

A.

Customer Surveys

B.

Industry Models

C.

Management Established Criteria

D.

Expected Defect Counts

E.

Benchmarking

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Questions 177

What technique can be used to provide structure to the ideas from a brainstorming session?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Affinity Diagram

C.

Matrix

D.

Pie Chart

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Questions 178

Within an ISO process assessment, a capability level is said to be established 'only' and 'only if' all the process attributes are 'fully achieved'.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 179

Which of the following would be considered a standard unit of measurement?

Options:

A.

Cost per unit of work

B.

Lines of code

C.

Percent over budget

D.

Defect removal efficiency

E.

Defects per thousand lines of code

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Questions 180

As the type of product changes on the process maturity continuum, the work processes also change.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 181

Quality Assurance activities comes under:

Options:

A.

Cost of Quality

B.

Appraisal Costs

C.

Failure Costs

D.

Prevention Costs

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Questions 182

One of the primary objectives of process control is to:

Options:

A.

Reduce Variability

B.

Increase Competition

C.

Improve Metrics

D.

Find Root Causes

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Questions 183

A contract that will assure the contracting organization of effective ongoing operation maintenance of the contracted software should include which of the following contractual provisions?

Options:

A.

Speed of service

B.

Nearness of service

C.

Cost of service

D.

Competency of service personnel

E.

All of the above

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Questions 184

Which of the following should be the selection criteria for COTS software regarding the integration of the software into an organization's business system work flow?

Options:

A.

It should not be a selection criteria

B.

It does not need full integration into an organization's business system work flow

C.

It should be able to be effectively integrated into an organization's business system work flow

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Questions 185

SEI's CMMi maturity level 5 focuses on:

Options:

A.

Quantitative Project Management

B.

Customer Satisfaction

C.

Quantitative Process Management

D.

Continuous Process Improvement

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Questions 186

A major corporation issued this statement: "We see ourselves now and in the future as a company with a strong customer franchise, known for reliability, trust and integrity in all relationships. Our business will be based on technologies that have evolved over a long history and which will give us unique advantages over our competition. These technologies will span our core businesses and will also go beyond boundaries we can see today." What type of statement is this?

Options:

A.

Vision

B.

Value

C.

Goal

D.

Principle

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Questions 187

While contracting for outsourced software development, ___________ refers to the rights of the customer to run the application system in more than one location.

Options:

A.

Maintainability

B.

Transportability

C.

Security

D.

Reliability

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Questions 188

Which of the following is not included in 'Failure Cost' under 'Cost of Quality'?

Options:

A.

Rework Cost

B.

Complaints

C.

Inspection Cost

D.

Damage Claims

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Questions 189

The greater the involvement of the entire IT staff in quality, the larger the size of the quality staff that is needed.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 190

Documenting or changing processes is part of which planning activity?

Options:

A.

Business / Activity Planning

B.

Environment Planning

C.

Objective / Goal Planning

D.

Policies / Procedures Planning

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Questions 191

At what process maturity level in the SEI process maturity model would you expect that the most effort would be devoted to quality control?

Options:

A.

Level Two

B.

Level Three

C.

Level Four

D.

Level Five

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Exam Code: CSQA
Exam Name: CSQA Certified Software Quality Analyst
Last Update: Nov 20, 2024
Questions: 639
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