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CISM Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

An organization's HR department requires that employee account privileges be removed from all corporate IT systems within three days of termination to comply with a government regulation However, the systems all have different user directories, and it currently takes up to four weeks to remove the privileges Which of the following would BEST enable regulatory compliance?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) system

B.

Identity and access management (IAM) system

C.

Privileged access management (PAM) system

D.

Governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) system

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Questions 5

What should be an information security manager's MOST important consideration when developing a multi-year plan?

Options:

A.

Ensuring contingency plans are in place for potential information security risks

B.

Ensuring alignment with the plans of other business units

C.

Allowing the information security program to expand its capabilities

D.

Demonstrating projected budget increases year after year

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Questions 6

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for determining the value of assets?

Options:

A.

Cost of replacing the assets

B.

Business cost when assets are not available

C.

Original cost of the assets minus depreciation

D.

Total cost of ownership (TCO)

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Questions 7

Which of the following is MOST effective for communicating forward-looking trends within security reporting?

Options:

A.

Key control indicator (KCIs)

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Key goal indicators (KGIs)

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Questions 8

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization has a mature information security culture?

Options:

A.

Information security training is mandatory for all staff.

B.

The organization's information security policy is documented and communicated.

C.

The chief information security officer (CISO) regularly interacts with the board.

D.

Staff consistently consider risk in making decisions.

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Questions 9

A newly appointed information security manager of a retailer with multiple stores discovers an HVAC (heating, ventilation, and air conditioning) vendor has remote access to the stores to enable real-time monitoring and equipment diagnostics. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct a penetration test of the vendor.

B.

Review the vendor's technical security controls

C.

Review the vendor contract

D.

Disconnect the real-time access

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Questions 10

Which of the following has the MOST influence on the inherent risk of an information asset?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Net present value (NPV)

C.

Return on investment (ROI)

D.

Business criticality

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Questions 11

Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to ensure that incident response teams are properly prepared?

Options:

A.

Providing training from third-party forensics firms

B.

Obtaining industry certifications for the response team

C.

Conducting tabletop exercises appropriate for the organization

D.

Documenting multiple scenarios for the organization and response steps

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Questions 12

Which of the following is the BEST approach to incident response for an organization migrating to a cloud-based solution?

Options:

A.

Adopt the cloud provider's incident response procedures.

B.

Transfer responsibility for incident response to the cloud provider.

C.

Continue using the existing incident response procedures.

D.

Revise incident response procedures to encompass the cloud environment.

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Questions 13

Which of the following is the MOST important detail to capture in an organization's risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Risk severity level

C.

Risk acceptance criteria

D.

Risk ownership

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Questions 14

What is the PRIMARY objective of performing a vulnerability assessment following a business system update?

Options:

A.

Determine operational losses.

B.

Improve the change control process.

C.

Update the threat landscape.

D.

Review the effectiveness of controls

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Questions 15

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to verify before conducting full-functional continuity testing?

Options:

A.

Risk acceptance by the business has been documented

B.

Teams and individuals responsible for recovery have been identified

C.

Copies of recovery and incident response plans are kept offsite

D.

Incident response and recovery plans are documented in simple language

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Questions 16

Which of the following is the BEST indication of effective information security governance?

Options:

A.

Information security is considered the responsibility of the entire information security team.

B.

Information security controls are assigned to risk owners.

C.

Information security is integrated into corporate governance.

D.

Information security governance is based on an external security framework.

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Questions 17

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to the recovery of critical systems and data following a ransomware incident?

Options:

A.

Lack of encryption for backup data in transit

B.

Undefined or undocumented backup retention policies

C.

Ineffective alert configurations for backup operations

D.

Unavailable or corrupt data backups

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Questions 18

A risk assessment exercise has identified the threat of a denial of service (DoS) attack Executive management has decided to take no further action related to this risk. The MO ST likely reason for this decision is

Options:

A.

the risk assessment has not defined the likelihood of occurrence

B.

the reported vulnerability has not been validated

C.

executive management is not aware of the impact potential

D.

the cost of implementing controls exceeds the potential financial losses.

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Questions 19

Which of the following is the responsibility of a risk owner?

Options:

A.

Implementing risk treatment plan activities with control owners

B.

Evaluating control effectiveness

C.

Approving risk treatment plans

D.

Approving the selection of risk mitigation measures

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Questions 20

Which of the following is the BEST course of action for an information security manager to align security and business goals?

Options:

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Reviewing the business strategy

C.

Defining key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Actively engaging with stakeholders

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Questions 21

An information security manager determines there are a significant number of exceptions to a newly released industry-required security standard. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Document risk acceptances.

B.

Revise the organization's security policy.

C.

Assess the consequences of noncompliance.

D.

Conduct an information security audit.

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Questions 22

Which of the following sources is MOST useful when planning a business-aligned information security program?

Options:

A.

Security risk register

B.

Information security policy

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Enterprise architecture (EA)

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Questions 23

The information security manager has been notified of a new vulnerability that affects key data processing systems within the organization Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management

B.

Re-evaluate the risk

C.

Implement compensating controls

D.

Ask the business owner for the new remediation plan

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Questions 24

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when defining a recovery strategy in a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Legal and regulatory requirements

B.

Likelihood of a disaster

C.

Organizational tolerance to service interruption

D.

Geographical location of the backup site

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Questions 25

Which of the following BEST indicates that information security governance and corporate governance are integrated?

Options:

A.

The information security team is aware of business goals.

B.

The board is regularly informed of information security key performance indicators (KPIs),

C.

The information security steering committee is composed of business leaders.

D.

A cost-benefit analysis is conducted on all information security initiatives.

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Questions 26

Which of the following is MOST important in increasing the effectiveness of incident responders?

Options:

A.

Communicating with the management team

B.

Integrating staff with the IT department

C.

Testing response scenarios

D.

Reviewing the incident response plan annually

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Questions 27

Which of the following provides an information security manager with the MOST accurate indication of the organization's ability to respond to a cyber attack?

Options:

A.

Walk-through of the incident response plan

B.

Black box penetration test

C.

Simulated phishing exercise

D.

Red team exercise

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Questions 28

When developing a business case to justify an information security investment, which of the following would BEST enable an informed decision by senior management?

Options:

A.

The information security strategy

B.

Losses due to security incidents

C.

The results of a risk assessment

D.

Security investment trends in the industry

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Questions 29

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the capability to restore clean data after a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Purchase cyber insurance

B.

Encrypt sensitive production data

C.

Perform Integrity checks on backups

D.

Maintain multiple offline backups

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Questions 30

Data entry functions for a web-based application have been outsourced to a third-party service provider who will work from a remote site Which of the following issues would be of GREATEST concern to an information security manager?

Options:

A.

The application does not use a secure communications protocol

B.

The application is configured with restrictive access controls

C.

The business process has only one level of error checking

D.

Server-based malware protection is not enforced

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Questions 31

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when developing escalation procedures for an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Each process is assigned to a responsible party.

B.

The contact list is regularly updated.

C.

Minimum regulatory requirements are maintained.

D.

Senior management approval has been documented.

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Questions 32

An information security manager learns of a new standard related to an emerging technology the organization wants to implement. Which of the following should the information security manager recommend be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Determine whether the organization can benefit from adopting the new standard.

B.

Obtain legal counsel's opinion on the standard's applicability to regulations,

C.

Perform a risk assessment on the new technology.

D.

Review industry specialists’ analyses of the new standard.

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Questions 33

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization's information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The organization's risk tolerance

B.

The organizational structure

C.

Industry security standards

D.

Information security awareness

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Questions 34

Which of the following desired outcomes BEST supports a decision to invest in a new security initiative?

Options:

A.

Enhanced security monitoring and reporting

B.

Reduced control complexity

C.

Enhanced threat detection capability

D.

Reduction of organizational risk

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Questions 35

Which of the following has The GREATEST positive impact on The ability to execute a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Storing the plan at an offsite location

B.

Communicating the plan to all stakeholders

C.

Updating the plan periodically

D.

Conducting a walk-through of the plan

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Questions 36

Which of the following is the BEST justification for making a revision to a password policy?

Options:

A.

Industry best practice

B.

A risk assessment

C.

Audit recommendation

D.

Vendor recommendation

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Questions 37

Which of the following is the BEST approach when creating a security policy for a global organization subject to varying laws and regulations?

Options:

A.

Incorporate policy statements derived from third-party standards and benchmarks.

B.

Adhere to a unique corporate privacy and security standard

C.

Establish baseline standards for all locations and add supplemental standards as required

D.

Require that all locations comply with a generally accepted set of industry

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Questions 38

Which of the following is the BEST approach to make strategic information security decisions?

Options:

A.

Establish regular information security status reporting.

B.

Establish an information security steering committee.

C.

Establish business unit security working groups.

D.

Establish periodic senior management meetings.

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Questions 39

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for obtaining input from risk owners when implementing controls?

Options:

A.

To reduce risk mitigation costs

B.

To resolve vulnerabilities in enterprise architecture (EA)

C.

To manage the risk to an acceptable level

D.

To eliminate threats impacting the business

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Questions 40

While classifying information assets an information security manager notices that several production databases do not have owners assigned to them What is the BEST way to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Assign responsibility to the database administrator (DBA).

B.

Review the databases for sensitive content.

C.

Prepare a report of the databases for senior management.

D.

Assign the highest classification level to those databases.

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Questions 41

Which of the following BEST supports information security management in the event of organizational changes in security personnel?

Options:

A.

Formalizing a security strategy and program

B.

Developing an awareness program for staff

C.

Ensuring current documentation of security processes

D.

Establishing processes within the security operations team

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Questions 42

Which of the following would be the BEST way for an information security manager to improve the effectiveness of an organization’s information security program?

Options:

A.

Focus on addressing conflicts between security and performance.

B.

Collaborate with business and IT functions in determining controls.

C.

Include information security requirements in the change control process.

D.

Obtain assistance from IT to implement automated security cantrals.

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Questions 43

Which of the following BEST ensures timely and reliable access to services?

Options:

A.

Nonrepudiation

B.

Authenticity

C.

Availability

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

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Questions 44

The MAIN reason for having senior management review and approve an information security strategic plan is to ensure:

Options:

A.

the organization has the required funds to implement the plan.

B.

compliance with legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

staff participation in information security efforts.

D.

the plan aligns with corporate governance.

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Questions 45

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of an information security manager in an organization that is implementing the use of company-owned mobile devices in its operations?

Options:

A.

Require remote wipe capabilities for devices.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Review and update existing security policies.

D.

Enforce passwords and data encryption on the devices.

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Questions 46

Which of the following is the BEST technical defense against unauthorized access to a corporate network through social engineering?

Options:

A.

Requiring challenge/response information

B.

Requiring multi factor authentication

C.

Enforcing frequent password changes

D.

Enforcing complex password formats

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Questions 47

The PRIMARY advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they:

Options:

A.

have a better understanding of specific business needs.

B.

are more objective than information security management.

C.

can see the overall impact to the business.

D.

can balance the technical and business risks.

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Questions 48

When choosing the best controls to mitigate risk to acceptable levels, the information security manager's decision should be MAINLY driven by:

Options:

A.

best practices.

B.

control framework

C.

regulatory requirements.

D.

cost-benefit analysis,

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Questions 49

An organization's main product is a customer-facing application delivered using Software as a Service (SaaS). The lead security engineer has just identified a major security vulnerability at the primary cloud provider. Within the organization, who is PRIMARILY accountable for the associated task?

Options:

A.

The information security manager

B.

The data owner

C.

The application owner

D.

The security engineer

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Questions 50

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration of business continuity management?

Options:

A.

Ensuring human safety

B.

Identifying critical business processes

C.

Ensuring the reliability of backup data

D.

Securing critical information assets

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Questions 51

Which of the following roles is BEST able to influence the security culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

B.

Chief information officer (CIO)

C.

Chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

Chief operating officer (COO)

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Questions 52

Which of the following methods is the BEST way to demonstrate that an information security program provides appropriate coverage?

Options:

A.

Security risk analysis

B.

Gap assessment

C.

Maturity assessment

D.

Vulnerability scan report

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Questions 53

What should be the FIRST step when an Internet of Things (loT) device in an organization's network is confirmed to have been hacked?

Options:

A.

Monitor the network.

B.

Perform forensic analysis.

C.

Disconnect the device from the network,

D.

Escalate to the incident response team

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Questions 54

An information security manager learns that IT personnel are not adhering to the information security policy because it creates process inefficiencies. What should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Conduct user awareness training within the IT function.

B.

Propose that IT update information security policies and procedures.

C.

Determine the risk related to noncompliance with the policy.

D.

Request that internal audit conduct a review of the policy development process,

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Questions 55

The MOST appropriate time to conduct a disaster recovery test would be after:

Options:

A.

major business processes have been redesigned.

B.

the business continuity plan (BCP) has been updated.

C.

the security risk profile has been reviewed

D.

noncompliance incidents have been filed.

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Questions 56

Which of the following will provide the MOST guidance when deciding the level of protection for an information asset?

Options:

A.

Impact on information security program

B.

Cost of controls

C.

Impact to business function

D.

Cost to replace

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Questions 57

When designing a disaster recovery plan (DRP), which of the following MUST be available in order to prioritize system restoration?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Recovery procedures

D.

Systems inventory

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Questions 58

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the risk associated with using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor?

Options:

A.

Verify that information security requirements are included in the contract.

B.

Request customer references from the vendor.

C.

Require vendors to complete information security questionnaires.

D.

Review the results of the vendor's independent control reports.

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Questions 59

An organization faces severe fines and penalties if not in compliance with local regulatory requirements by an established deadline. Senior management has asked the information security manager to prepare an action plan to achieve compliance.

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information for planning purposes? »

Options:

A.

Results from a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Deadlines and penalties for noncompliance

C.

Results from a gap analysis

D.

An inventory of security controls currently in place

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Questions 60

Relationships between critical systems are BEST understood by

Options:

A.

evaluating key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

performing a business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

developing a system classification scheme

D.

evaluating the recovery time objectives (RTOs)

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Questions 61

To support effective risk decision making, which of the following is MOST important to have in place?

Options:

A.

Established risk domains

B.

Risk reporting procedures

C.

An audit committee consisting of mid-level management

D.

Well-defined and approved controls

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Questions 62

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to a security operations center's wna GY of potential security breaches?

Options:

A.

IT system clocks are not synchronized with the centralized logging server.

B.

Operating systems are no longer supported by the vendor.

C.

The patch management system does not deploy patches in a timely manner.

D.

An organization has a decentralized data center that uses cloud services.

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Questions 63

Following a successful attack, an information security manager should be confident the malware @ continued to spread at the completion of which incident response phase?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Recovery

C.

Eradication

D.

Identification

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Questions 64

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when a mandatory security standard hinders the achievement of an identified business objective?

Options:

A.

Revisit the business objective.

B.

Escalate to senior management.

C.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

D.

Recommend risk acceptance.

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Questions 65

To confirm that a third-party provider complies with an organization's information security requirements, it is MOST important to ensure:

Options:

A.

security metrics are included in the service level agreement (SLA).

B.

contract clauses comply with the organization's information security policy.

C.

the information security policy of the third-party service provider is reviewed.

D.

right to audit is included in the service level agreement (SLA).

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Questions 66

To overcome the perception that security is a hindrance to business activities, it is important for an information security manager to:

Options:

A.

rely on senior management to enforce security.

B.

promote the relevance and contribution of security.

C.

focus on compliance.

D.

reiterate the necessity of security.

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Questions 67

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of including incident classification criteria within an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Ability to monitor and control incident management costs

B.

More visibility to the impact of disruptions

C.

Effective protection of information assets

D.

Optimized allocation of recovery resources

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Questions 68

Which of the following is an example of risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Purchasing insurance

B.

Discontinuing the activity associated with the risk

C.

Improving security controls

D.

Performing a cost-benefit analysis

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Questions 69

An organization plans to offer clients a new service that is subject to regulations. What should the organization do FIRST when developing a security strategy in support of this new service?

Options:

A.

Determine security controls for the new service.

B.

Establish a compliance program,

C.

Perform a gap analysis against the current state

D.

Hire new resources to support the service.

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Questions 70

An organization needs to comply with new security incident response requirements. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Create a business case for a new incident response plan.

B.

Revise the existing incident response plan.

C.

Conduct a gap analysis.

D.

Assess the impact to the budget,

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Questions 71

Who is BEST suited to determine how the information in a database should be classified?

Options:

A.

Database analyst

B.

Database administrator (DBA)

C.

Information security analyst

D.

Data owner

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Questions 72

The BEST way to identify the risk associated with a social engineering attack is to:

Options:

A.

monitor the intrusion detection system (IDS),

B.

review single sign-on (SSO) authentication lags.

C.

test user knowledge of information security practices.

D.

perform a business risk assessment of the email filtering system.

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Questions 73

A balanced scorecard MOST effectively enables information security:

Options:

A.

risk management

B.

project management

C.

governance

D.

performance

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Questions 74

An information security manager has been notified about a compromised endpoint device Which of the following is the BEST course of action to prevent further damage?

Options:

A.

Wipe and reset the endpoint device.

B.

Isolate the endpoint device.

C.

Power off the endpoint device.

D.

Run a virus scan on the endpoint device.

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Questions 75

Which of the following is the BEST indication of information security strategy alignment with the “&

Options:

A.

Percentage of information security incidents resolved within defined service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

Percentage of corporate budget allocated to information security initiatives

C.

Number of business executives who have attended information security awareness sessions

D.

Number of business objectives directly supported by information security initiatives

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Questions 76

Which of the following would BEST justify continued investment in an information security program?

Options:

A.

Reduction in residual risk

B.

Security framework alignment

C.

Speed of implementation

D.

Industry peer benchmarking

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Questions 77

An organization plans to utilize Software as a Service (SaaS) and is in the process of selecting a vendor. What should the information security manager do FIRST to support this initiative?

Options:

A.

Review independent security assessment reports for each vendor.

B.

Benchmark each vendor's services with industry best practices.

C.

Analyze the risks and propose mitigating controls.

D.

Define information security requirements and processes.

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Questions 78

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) are BEST determined by:

Options:

A.

business managers

B.

business continuity officers

C.

executive management

D.

database administrators (DBAs).

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Questions 79

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for a successful security program?

Options:

A.

Mapping security processes to baseline security standards

B.

Penetration testing on key systems

C.

Management decision on asset value

D.

Nondisclosure agreements (NDA) with employees

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Questions 80

An organization's quality process can BEST support security management by providing:

Options:

A.

security configuration controls.

B.

assurance that security requirements are met.

C.

guidance for security strategy.

D.

a repository for security systems documentation.

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Questions 81

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Provide a baseline for optimizing the security profile of the organization.

B.

Demonstrate senior management commitment.

C.

Demonstrate compliance with industry best practices to external stakeholders.

D.

Ensure that users comply with the organization's information security policies.

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Questions 82

Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure compliance with password standards?

Options:

A.

Implementing password-synchronization software

B.

Using password-cracking software

C.

Automated enforcement of password syntax rules

D.

A user-awareness program

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Questions 83

Which of the following is the GREATEST value provided by a security information and event management (SIEM) system?

Options:

A.

Maintaining a repository base of security policies

B.

Measuring impact of exploits on business processes

C.

Facilitating the monitoring of risk occurrences

D.

Redirecting event logs to an alternate location for business continuity plan

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Questions 84

Management has announced the acquisition of a new company. The information security manager of the parent company is concerned that conflicting access rights may cause critical information to be exposed during the integration of the two companies. To BEST address this concern, the information security manager should:

Options:

A.

review access rights as the acquisition integration occurs.

B.

perform a risk assessment of the access rights.

C.

escalate concerns for conflicting access rights to management.

D.

implement consistent access control standards.

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Questions 85

What is the PRIMARY benefit to an organization that maintains an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Resources are prioritized to maximize return on investment (ROI)

B.

Information security guidelines are communicated across the enterprise_

C.

The organization remains compliant with regulatory requirements.

D.

Business risks are managed to an acceptable level.

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Questions 86

What is the PRIMARY benefit to an organization when information security program requirements are aligned with employment and staffing processes?

Options:

A.

Security incident reporting procedures are followed.

B.

Security staff turnover is reduced.

C.

Information assets are classified appropriately.

D.

Access is granted based on task requirements.

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Questions 87

After logging in to a web application, additional authentication is checked at various application points. Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for such an approach?

Options:

A.

To ensure access rights meet classification requirements

B.

To facilitate the analysis of application logs

C.

To ensure web application availability

D.

To support strong two-factor authentication protocols

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Questions 88

Which of the following is a PRIMARY responsibility of the information security goxernance function?

Options:

A.

Administering information security awareness training

B.

Defining security strategies to support organizational programs

C.

Ensuring adequate support for solutions using emerging technologies

D.

Advising senior management on optimal levels of risk appetite and tolerance

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Questions 89

Which of the following is the BEST way to achieve compliance with new global regulations related to the protection of personal information?

Options:

A.

Execute a risk treatment plan.

B.

Review contracts and statements of work (SOWs) with vendors.

C.

Implement data regionalization controls.

D.

Determine current and desired state of controls.

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Questions 90

Which of the following should be an information security manager's FIRST course of action when a newly introduced privacy regulation affects the business?

Options:

A.

Consult with IT staff and assess the risk based on their recommendations

B.

Update the security policy based on the regulatory requirements

C.

Propose relevant controls to ensure the business complies with the regulation

D.

Identify and assess the risk in the context of business objectives

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Questions 91

Which or the following is MOST important to consider when determining backup frequency?

Options:

A.

Recovery point objective (RPO)

B.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

C.

Allowable interruption window

D.

Maximum tolerable outage (MTO)

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Questions 92

Which of the following should be done FIRST once a cybersecurity attack has been confirmed?

Options:

A.

Isolate the affected system.

B.

Notify senior management.

C.

Power down the system.

D.

Contact legal authorities.

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Questions 93

An organization plans to leverage popular social network platforms to promote its products and services. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the information security manager to support this initiative?

Options:

A.

Establish processes to publish content on social networks.

B.

Assess the security risk associated with the use of social networks.

C.

Conduct vulnerability assessments on social network platforms.

D.

Develop security controls for the use of social networks.

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Questions 94

An organization learns that a third party has outsourced critical functions to another external provider. Which of the following is the information security manager's MOST important course of action?

Options:

A.

Engage an independent audit of the third party's external provider.

B.

Recommend canceling the contract with the third party.

C.

Evaluate the third party's agreements with its external provider.

D.

Conduct an external audit of the contracted third party.

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Questions 95

Which of the following BEST demonstrates that an anti-phishing campaign is effective?

Options:

A.

Improved staff attendance in awareness sessions

B.

Decreased number of phishing emails received

C.

Improved feedback on the anti-phishing campaign

D.

Decreased number of incidents that have occurred

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Questions 96

An information security team is investigating an alleged breach of an organization's network. Which of the following would be the BEST single source of evidence to review?

Options:

A.

File integrity monitoring software

B.

Security information and event management (SIEM) tool

C.

Antivirus software

D.

Intrusion detection system (IDS)

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Questions 97

Which of the following events is MOST likely to require an organization to revisit its information security framework?

Options:

A.

New services offered by IT

B.

Changes to the risk landscape

C.

A recent cybersecurity attack

D.

A new technology implemented

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Questions 98

An information security manager has learned of an increasing trend in attacks that use phishing emails impersonating an organization's CEO in an attempt to commit wire transfer fraud. Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the risk associated with this type of attack?

Options:

A.

Temporarily suspend wire transfers for the organization.

B.

Provide awareness training to the CEO for this type of phishing attack.

C.

Provide awareness training to staff responsible for wire transfers.

D.

Disable emails for staff responsible for wire transfers.

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Questions 99

Several months after the installation of a new firewall with intrusion prevention features to block malicious activity, a breach was discovered that came in through the firewall shortly after installation. This breach could have been detected earlier by implementing firewall:

Options:

A.

packet filtering.

B.

web surfing controls.

C.

log monitoring.

D.

application awareness.

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Questions 100

An information security manager has been tasked with developing materials to update the board, regulatory agencies, and the media about a security incident. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Set up communication channels for the target audience.

B.

Determine the needs and requirements of each audience.

C.

Create a comprehensive singular communication

D.

Invoke the organization's incident response plan.

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Questions 101

An organization has remediated a security flaw in a system. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Assess the residual risk.

B.

Share lessons learned with the organization.

C.

Update the system's documentation.

D.

Allocate budget for penetration testing.

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Questions 102

Which of the following is MOST important when developing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Engage stakeholders.

B.

Assign data ownership.

C.

Determine information types.

D.

Classify information assets.

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Questions 103

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST after identifying suspicious activity on a PC that is not in the organization's IT asset inventory?

Options:

A.

Isolate the PC from the network

B.

Perform a vulnerability scan

C.

Determine why the PC is not included in the inventory

D.

Reinforce information security training

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Questions 104

An investigation of a recent security incident determined that the root cause was negligent handing of incident alerts by system admit manager to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk assessment and share the result with senior management.

B.

Revise the incident response plan-to align with business processes.

C.

Provide incident response training to data custodians.

D.

Provide incident response training to data owners.

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Questions 105

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an emerging incident?

Options:

A.

A weakness identified within an organization's information systems

B.

Customer complaints about lack of website availability

C.

A recent security incident at an industry competitor

D.

Attempted patching of systems resulting in errors

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Questions 106

Which of the following is ESSENTIAL to ensuring effective incident response?

Options:

A.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Classification scheme

D.

Senior management support

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Questions 107

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

The framework defines managerial responsibilities for risk impacts to business goals.

B.

The framework provides direction to meet business goals while balancing risks and controls.

C.

The framework provides a roadmap to maximize revenue through the secure use of technology.

D.

The framework is able to confirm the validity of business goals and strategies.

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Questions 108

Which of the following is the BEST method to protect the confidentiality of data transmitted over the Internet?

Options:

A.

Network address translation (NAT)

B.

Message hashing

C.

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

D.

Multi-factor authentication

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Questions 109

The information security manager of a multinational organization has been asked to consolidate the information security policies of its regional locations. Which of the following would be of

GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Varying threat environments

B.

Disparate reporting lines

C.

Conflicting legal requirements

D.

Differences in work culture

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Questions 110

Which of the following would provide the BEST evidence to senior management that security control performance has improved?

Options:

A.

Demonstrated return on security investment

B.

Reduction in inherent risk

C.

Results of an emerging threat analysis

D.

Review of security metrics trends

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Questions 111

Which of the following trends would be of GREATEST concern when reviewing the performance of an organization's intrusion detection systems (IDSs)?

Options:

A.

Decrease in false positives

B.

Increase in false positives

C.

Increase in false negatives

D.

Decrease in false negatives

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Questions 112

An organization wants to integrate information security into its HR management processes. Which of the following should be the FIRST step?

Options:

A.

Calculate the return on investment (ROI).

B.

Provide security awareness training to HR.

C.

Benchmark the processes with best practice to identify gaps.

D.

Assess the business objectives of the processes.

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Questions 113

An information security manager is MOST likely to obtain approval for a new security project when the business case provides evidence of:

Options:

A.

organizational alignment

B.

IT strategy alignment

C.

threats to the organization

D.

existing control costs

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Questions 114

An organization's automated security monitoring tool generates an excessively large amount of falsq positives. Which of the following is the BEST method to optimize the monitoring process?

Options:

A.

Report only critical alerts.

B.

Change reporting thresholds.

C.

Reconfigure log recording.

D.

Monitor incidents in a specific time frame.

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Questions 115

Which of the following BEST indicates the effectiveness of the vendor risk management process?

Options:

A.

Increase in the percentage of vendors certified to a globally recognized security standard

B.

Increase in the percentage of vendors with a completed due diligence review

C.

Increase in the percentage of vendors conducting mandatory security training

D.

Increase in the percentage of vendors that have reported security breaches

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Questions 116

An employee of an organization has reported losing a smartphone that contains sensitive information The BEST step to address this situation is to:

Options:

A.

disable the user's access to corporate resources.

B.

terminate the device connectivity.

C.

remotely wipe the device

D.

escalate to the user's management

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Questions 117

Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of an organization using Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) to help manage its disaster recovery program?

Options:

A.

It offers the organization flexible deployment options using cloud infrastructure.

B.

It allows the organization to prioritize its core operations.

C.

It is more secure than traditional data backup architecture.

D.

It allows the use of a professional response team at a lower cost.

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Questions 118

Which type of plan is PRIMARILY intended to reduce the potential impact of security events that may occur?

Options:

A.

Security awareness plan

B.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Incident response plan

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Questions 119

After the occurrence of a major information security incident, which of the following will BEST help an information security manager determine corrective actions?

Options:

A.

Calculating cost of the incident

B.

Conducting a postmortem assessment

C.

Performing an impact analysis

D.

Preserving the evidence

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Questions 120

The ULTIMATE responsibility for ensuring the objectives of an information security framework are being met belongs to:

Options:

A.

)the information security officer.

B.

the steering committee.

C.

the board of directors.

D.

the internal audit manager.

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Questions 121

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the effectiveness of an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Reviewing previous audit reports

B.

Conducting a tabletop exercise

C.

Benchmarking the plan against best practices

D.

Performing a penetration test

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Questions 122

An information security manager has identified that privileged employee access requests to production servers are approved; but user actions are not logged. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern with this situation?

Options:

A.

Lack of availability

B.

Lack of accountability

C.

Improper authorization

D.

Inadequate authentication

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Questions 123

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to ensure the security of services and solutions delivered by third-party vendors?

Options:

A.

Integrate risk management into the vendor management process.

B.

Conduct security reviews on the services and solutions delivered.

C.

Review third-party contracts as part of the vendor management process.

D.

Perform an audit on vendors' security controls and practices.

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Questions 124

Which of the following metrics is MOST appropriate for evaluating the incident notification process?

Options:

A.

Average total cost of downtime per reported incident

B.

Elapsed time between response and resolution

C.

Average number of incidents per reporting period

D.

Elapsed time between detection, reporting, and response

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Questions 125

Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for an information security manager when an annual audit reveals the organization's business continuity plan (BCP) has not been reviewed or updated in more than a year?

Options:

A.

An outdated BCP may result in less efficient recovery if an actual incident occurs.

B.

The organization may suffer reputational damage for not following industry best practices.

C.

The audit finding may impact the overall risk rating of the organization.

D.

The lack of updates to the BCP may result in noncompliance with internal policies.

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Questions 126

An organization's information security manager reads on social media that a recently purchased vendor product has been compromised and customer data has been posted online. What should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Notify local law enforcement agencies of a breach.

C.

Activate the incident response program.

D.

Validate the risk to the organization.

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Questions 127

What should a global information security manager do FIRST when informed that a new regulation with significant impact will go into effect soon?

Options:

A.

Perform a privacy impact assessment (PIA).

B.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

C.

Perform a gap analysis.

D.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

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Questions 128

Which of the following is the BEST approach for data owners to use when defining access privileges for users?

    Define access privileges based on user roles.

    Adopt user account settings recommended by the vendor.

    Perform a risk assessment of the users' access privileges.

Options:

A.

Implement an identity and access management (IDM) tool.

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Questions 129

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of the information security function when an organization adopts emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Developing security training for the new technologies

B.

Designing new security controls

C.

Creating an acceptable use policy for the technologies

D.

Assessing the potential security risk

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Questions 130

When developing an incident escalation process, the BEST approach is to classify incidents based on:

Options:

A.

estimated time to recover.

B.

information assets affected.

C.

recovery point objectives (RPOs).

D.

their root causes.

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Questions 131

Which of the following is the FIRST step when conducting a post-incident review?

Options:

A.

Identify mitigating controls.

B.

Assess the costs of the incident.

C.

Perform root cause analysis.

D.

Assign responsibility for corrective actions.

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Questions 132

Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on efforts to improve an organization's security posture?

Options:

A.

Regular reporting to senior management

B.

Supportive tone at the top regarding security

C.

Automation of security controls

D.

Well-documented security policies and procedures

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Questions 133

Which of the following MUST be established to maintain an effective information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Security controls automation

B.

Defined security metrics

C.

Change management processes

D.

Security policy provisions

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Questions 134

Of the following, who is BEST positioned to be accountable for risk acceptance decisions based on risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

C.

Information security steering committee

D.

Risk owner

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Questions 135

Which of the following is the BEST reason to implement a comprehensive information security management system?

    To ensure continuous alignment with the organizational strategy

    To gain senior management support for the information security program

    To support identification of key risk indicators (KRIs)

Options:

A.

To facilitate compliance with external regulatory requirements

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Questions 136

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of a successful intrusion into an organization's systems?

Options:

A.

Decrease in internal network traffic

B.

Increase in the number of failed login attempts

C.

Increase in the number of irregular application requests

D.

Decrease in available storage space

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Questions 137

After a recovery from a successful malware attack, instances of the malware continue to be discovered. Which phase of incident response was not successful?

Options:

A.

Eradication

B Recovery

B.

Lessons learned review

C.

Incident declaration

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Questions 138

Which of the following is MOST important to include in security incident escalation procedures?

Options:

A.

Key objectives of the security program

B.

Recovery procedures

C.

Notification criteria

D.

Containment procedures

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Questions 139

Which type of recovery site is MOST reliable and can support stringent recovery requirements?

Options:

A.

Cold site

B.

Warm site

C.

Hot site

D.

Mobile site

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Questions 140

Which of the following BEST enables an incident response team to determine appropriate actions during an initial investigation?

Options:

A.

Feedback from affected departments

B.

Historical data from past incidents

C.

Technical capabilities of the team

D.

Procedures for incident triage

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Questions 141

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to consider when determining whether data should be stored?

Options:

A.

Data protection regulations

B.

Data storage limitations

C.

Business requirements

D.

Type and nature of data

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Questions 142

What type of control is being implemented when a security information and event management (SIEM) system is installed?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Deterrent

C.

Detective

D.

Corrective

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Questions 143

Which of the following is the BEST defense-in-depth implementation for protecting high value assets or for handling environments that have trust concerns?

Options:

A.

Compartmentalization

B.

Overlapping redundancy

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Multi-factor authentication

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Questions 144

A security incident has been reported within an organization When should an information security manager contact the information owner?

Options:

A.

After the incident has been mitigated

B.

After the incident has been confirmed.

C.

After the potential incident has been togged

D.

After the incident has been contained

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Questions 145

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to a large multinational organization using an automated identity and access management (1AM) system?

Options:

A.

Staff turnover rates that significantly exceed industry averages

B.

Large number of applications in the organization

C.

Inaccurate workforce data from human resources (HR)

D.

Frequent changes to user roles during employment

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Questions 146

An organization is about to purchase a rival organization. The PRIMARY reason for performing information security due diligence prior to making the purchase is to:

Options:

A.

determine the security exposures.

B.

assess the ability to integrate the security department operations.

C.

ensure compliance with international standards.

D.

evaluate the security policy and standards.

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Questions 147

Which of the following would provide the MOST value to senior management when presenting the results of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Mapping the risks to the security classification scheme

B.

Illustrating risk on a heat map

C.

Mapping the risks to existing controls

D.

Providing a technical risk assessment report

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Questions 148

An information security manager is working to incorporate media communication procedures into the security incident communication plan. It would be MOST important to include:

Options:

A.

a directory of approved local media contacts

B.

pre-prepared media statements

C.

procedures to contact law enforcement

D.

a single point of contact within the organization

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Questions 149

An information security team has confirmed that threat actors are taking advantage of a newly announced critical vulnerability within an application. Which of the following should be done

FIRST?

Options:

A.

Install additional application controls.

B.

Notify senior management.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Prevent access to the application.

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Questions 150

Which of the following is the BEST control to protect customer personal information that is stored in the cloud?

Options:

A.

Timely deletion of digital records

B.

Appropriate data anonymization

C.

Strong encryption methods

D.

Strong physical access controls

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Questions 151

Which of the following would BEST guide the development and maintenance of an information security program?

Options:

A.

A business impact assessment

B.

A comprehensive risk register

C.

An established risk assessment process

D.

The organization's risk appetite

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Questions 152

Which of the following would be MOST useful when determining the business continuity strategy for a large organization's data center?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder feedback analysis

B.

Business continuity risk analysis

C.

Incident root cause analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 153

An organization implemented a number of technical and administrative controls to mitigate risk associated with ransomware. Which of the following is MOST important to present to senior management when reporting on the performance of this initiative?

Options:

A.

The total cost of the investment

B.

The cost and associated risk reduction

C.

The number and severity of ransomware incidents

D.

Benchmarks of industry peers impacted by ransomware

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Questions 154

For event logs to be acceptable for incident investigation, which of the following is the MOST important consideration to establish chain of evidence?

Options:

A.

Centralized logging

B.

Time clock synchronization

C.

Available forensic tools

D.

Administrator log access

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Questions 155

An organization recently updated and published its information security policy and standards. What should the information security manager do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk assessment.

B.

Communicate the changes to stakeholders.

C.

Update the organization's risk register.

D.

Develop a policy exception process.

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Questions 156

After a ransomware incident an organization's systems were restored. Which of the following should be of MOST concern to the information security manager?

Options:

A.

The service level agreement (SLA) was not met.

B.

The recovery time objective (RTO) was not met.

C.

The root cause was not identified.

D.

Notification to stakeholders was delayed.

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Questions 157

Which of the following is the MOST effective defense against malicious insiders compromising confidential information?

Options:

A.

Regular audits of access controls

B.

Strong background checks when hiring staff

C.

Prompt termination procedures

D.

Role-based access control (RBAC)

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Questions 158

To help ensure that an information security training program is MOST effective, its contents should be:

Options:

A.

based on recent incidents.

B.

based on employees’ roles.

C.

aligned to business processes.

D.

focused on information security policy.

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Questions 159

Which of the following BEST enables an information security manager to obtain organizational support for the implementation of security controls?

Options:

A.

Conducting periodic vulnerability assessments

B.

Communicating business impact analysis (BIA) results

C.

Establishing effective stakeholder relationships

D.

Defining the organization's risk management framework

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Questions 160

Identifying which of the following BEST enables a cyberattack to be contained?

Options:

A.

The vulnerability exploited by the attack

B.

The segment targeted by the attack

C.

The IP address of the computer that launched the attack

D.

The threat actor that initiated the attack

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Questions 161

Which of the following should be established FIRST when implementing an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Security architecture

B.

Security policies

C.

Security incident management team

D.

Security awareness training program

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Questions 162

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining which type of failover site to employ?

Options:

A.

Reciprocal agreements

B.

Disaster recovery test results

C.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

Data retention requirements

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Questions 163

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when choosing a shared alternate location for computing facilities?

Options:

A.

The organization's risk tolerance

B.

The organization's mission

C.

Resource availability

D.

Incident response team training

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Questions 164

Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining the criticality of an organization's business functions?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Security assessment report (SAR)

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Questions 165

Which of the following should be done FIRST when implementing a security program?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk analysis

B.

Implement data encryption.

C.

Create an information asset inventory.

D.

Determine the value of information assets.

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Questions 166

Following a breach where the risk has been isolated and forensic processes have been performed, which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Place the web server in quarantine.

B.

Rebuild the server from the last verified backup.

C.

Shut down the server in an organized manner.

D.

Rebuild the server with relevant patches from the original media.

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Questions 167

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to convey information security responsibilities across an organization?

Options:

A.

Implementing security awareness programs

B.

Documenting information security responsibilities within job descriptions

C.

Developing a skills matrix

D.

Defining information security responsibilities in the security policy

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Questions 168

Security administration efforts will be greatly reduced following the deployment of which of the following techniques?

Options:

A.

Discretionary access control

B.

Role-based access control

C.

Access control lists

D.

Distributed access control

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Questions 169

Which of the following is the MOST important criterion when deciding whether to accept residual risk?

Options:

A.

Cost of replacing the asset

B.

Cost of additional mitigation

C.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Annual rate of occurrence

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Questions 170

Which of the following is MOST effective in monitoring an organization's existing risk?

Options:

A.

Periodic updates to risk register

B.

Risk management dashboards

C.

Security information and event management (SIEM) systems

D.

Vulnerability assessment results

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Questions 171

An organization is going through a digital transformation process, which places the IT organization in an unfamiliar risk landscape. The information security manager has been tasked with leading the IT risk management process. Which of the following should be given the HIGHEST priority?

Options:

A.

Identification of risk

B.

Analysis of control gaps

C.

Design of key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Selection of risk treatment options

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Questions 172

A recovery point objective (RPO) is required in which of the following?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Information security plan

C.

Incident response plan

D.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

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Questions 173

Which of the following is the FIRST step to establishing an effective information security program?

Options:

A.

Conduct a compliance review.

B.

Assign accountability.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

Create a business case.

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Questions 174

Which of the following Is MOST useful to an information security manager when conducting a post-incident review of an attack?

Options:

A.

Cost of the attack to the organization

B.

Location of the attacker

C.

Method of operation used by the attacker

D.

Details from intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

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Questions 175

Which of the following is MOST important to ensuring information stored by an organization is protected appropriately?

Options:

A.

Defining information stewardship roles

B.

Defining security asset categorization

C.

Assigning information asset ownership

D.

Developing a records retention schedule

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Questions 176

Which of the following activities MUST be performed by an information security manager for change requests?

Options:

A.

Perform penetration testing on affected systems.

B.

Scan IT systems for operating system vulnerabilities.

C.

Review change in business requirements for information security.

D.

Assess impact on information security risk.

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Questions 177

Which of the following BEST indicates that information assets are classified accurately?

Options:

A.

Appropriate prioritization of information risk treatment

B.

Increased compliance with information security policy

C.

Appropriate assignment of information asset owners

D.

An accurate and complete information asset catalog

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Questions 178

Which of the following BEST enables staff acceptance of information security policies?

Options:

A.

Strong senior management support

B.

Gomputer-based training

C.

Arobust incident response program

D.

Adequate security funding

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Questions 179

Which of the following will BEST facilitate the integration of information security governance into enterprise governance?

Options:

A.

Developing an information security policy based on risk assessments

B.

Establishing an information security steering committee

C.

Documenting the information security governance framework

D.

Implementing an information security awareness program

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Questions 180

The MAIN benefit of implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution is to:

Options:

A.

enhance the organization's antivirus controls.

B.

eliminate the risk of data loss.

C.

complement the organization's detective controls.

D.

reduce the need for a security awareness program.

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Questions 181

Which of the following activities is designed to handle a control failure that leads to a breach?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Incident management

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Vulnerability management

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Questions 182

Measuring which of the following is the MOST accurate way to determine the alignment of an information security strategy with organizational goals?

Options:

A.

Number of blocked intrusion attempts

B.

Number of business cases reviewed by senior management

C.

Trends in the number of identified threats to the business

D.

Percentage of controls integrated into business processes

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Questions 183

In an organization with a rapidly changing environment, business management has accepted an information security risk. It is MOST important for the information security manager to ensure:

Options:

A.

change activities are documented.

B.

the rationale for acceptance is periodically reviewed.

C.

the acceptance is aligned with business strategy.

D.

compliance with the risk acceptance framework.

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Questions 184

Which is the BEST method to evaluate the effectiveness of an alternate processing site when continuous uptime is required?

Options:

A.

Parallel test

B.

Full interruption test

C.

Simulation test

D.

Tabletop test

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Questions 185

Which of the following is an information security manager's BEST course of action when a threat intelligence report indicates a large number of ransomware attacks targeting the industry?

Options:

A.

Increase the frequency of system backups.

B.

Review the mitigating security controls.

C.

Notify staff members of the threat.

D.

Assess the risk to the organization.

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Questions 186

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for granting a security exception?

Options:

A.

The risk is justified by the cost to the business.

B.

The risk is justified by the benefit to security.

C.

The risk is justified by the cost to security.

D.

The risk is justified by the benefit to the business.

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Questions 187

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an organization's information security status?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection log analysis

B.

Controls audit

C.

Threat analysis

D.

Penetration test

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Questions 188

An organization is implementing an information security governance framework. To communicate the program's effectiveness to stakeholders, it is MOST important to establish:

Options:

A.

a control self-assessment (CSA) process.

B.

automated reporting to stakeholders.

C.

a monitoring process for the security policy.

D.

metrics for each milestone.

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Questions 189

Which of the following MUST happen immediately following the identification of a malware incident?

Options:

A.

Preparation

B.

Recovery

C.

Containment

D.

Eradication

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Questions 190

Which of the following is MOST critical when creating an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Identifying vulnerable data assets

B.

Identifying what constitutes an incident

C.

Documenting incident notification and escalation processes

D.

Aligning with the risk assessment process

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Questions 191

Which of the following is the BEST method to protect against emerging advanced persistent threat (APT) actors?

Options:

A.

Providing ongoing training to the incident response team

B.

Implementing proactive systems monitoring

C.

Implementing a honeypot environment

D.

Updating information security awareness materials

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Questions 192

An organization has acquired a company in a foreign country to gain an advantage in a new market. Which of the following is the FIRST step the information security manager should take?

Options:

A.

Determine which country's information security regulations will be used.

B.

Merge the two existing information security programs.

C.

Apply the existing information security program to the acquired company.

D.

Evaluate the information security laws that apply to the acquired company.

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Questions 193

A PRIMARY purpose of creating security policies is to:

Options:

A.

define allowable security boundaries.

B.

communicate management's security expectations.

C.

establish the way security tasks should be executed.

D.

implement management's security governance strategy.

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Questions 194

An incident management team is alerted to a suspected security event. Before classifying the suspected event as a security incident, it is MOST important for the security manager to:

Options:

A.

conduct an incident forensic analysis.

B.

fallow the incident response plan

C.

notify the business process owner.

D.

fallow the business continuity plan (BCP).

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Questions 195

During which of the following phases should an incident response team document actions required to remove the threat that caused the incident?

Options:

A.

Post-incident review

B.

Eradication

C.

Containment

D.

Identification

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Questions 196

Reviewing which of the following would be MOST helpful when a new information security manager is developing an information security strategy for a non-regulated organization?

Options:

A.

Management's business goals and objectives

B.

Strategies of other non-regulated companies

C.

Risk assessment results

D.

Industry best practices and control recommendations

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Questions 197

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure a risk response plan will be developed and executed in a timely manner?

Options:

A.

Establishing risk metrics

B.

Training on risk management procedures

C.

Reporting on documented deficiencies

D.

Assigning a risk owner

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Questions 198

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing an organization's information security governance committee?

Options:

A.

Members have knowledge of information security controls.

B.

Members are business risk owners.

C.

Members are rotated periodically.

D.

Members represent functions across the organization.

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Questions 199

Which of the following should be done FIRST when establishing a new data protection program that must comply with applicable data privacy regulations?

Options:

A.

Evaluate privacy technologies required for data protection.

B.

Encrypt all personal data stored on systems and networks.

C.

Update disciplinary processes to address privacy violations.

D.

Create an inventory of systems where personal data is stored.

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Questions 200

Of the following, who is in the BEST position to evaluate business impacts?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Information security manager

C.

IT manager

D.

Process manager

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Questions 201

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining asset valuation?

Options:

A.

Asset recovery cost

B.

Asset classification level

C.

Cost of insurance premiums

D.

Potential business loss

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Questions 202

In which cloud model does the cloud service buyer assume the MOST security responsibility?

Options:

A.

Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Questions 203

When investigating an information security incident, details of the incident should be shared:

Options:

A.

widely to demonstrate positive intent.

B.

only with management.

C.

only as needed,

D.

only with internal audit.

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Questions 204

Which of the following is the GREATEST inherent risk when performing a disaster recovery plan (DRP) test?

Options:

A.

Poor documentation of results and lessons learned

B.

Lack of communication to affected users

C.

Disruption to the production environment

D.

Lack of coordination among departments

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Questions 205

Information security controls should be designed PRIMARILY based on:

Options:

A.

a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

regulatory requirements.

C.

business risk scenarios,

D.

a vulnerability assessment.

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Questions 206

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform regular reviews of the cybersecurity threat landscape?

Options:

A.

To compare emerging trends with the existing organizational security posture

B.

To communicate worst-case scenarios to senior management

C.

To train information security professionals to mitigate new threats

D.

To determine opportunities for expanding organizational information security

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Questions 207

Which of the following is the BEST approach for governing noncompliance with security requirements?

Options:

A.

Base mandatory review and exception approvals on residual risk,

B.

Require users to acknowledge the acceptable use policy.

C.

Require the steering committee to review exception requests.

D.

Base mandatory review and exception approvals on inherent risk.

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Questions 208

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the organization's security objectives are embedded in business operations?

Options:

A.

Publish adopted information security standards.

B.

Perform annual information security compliance reviews.

C.

Implement an information security governance framework.

D.

Define penalties for information security noncompliance.

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Questions 209

ACISO learns that a third-party service provider did not notify the organization of a data breach that affected the service provider's data center. Which of the following should the CISO do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Recommend canceling the outsourcing contract.

B.

Request an independent review of the provider's data center.

C.

Notify affected customers of the data breach.

D.

Determine the extent of the impact to the organization.

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Questions 210

Which of the following processes BEST supports the evaluation of incident response effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis

B.

Post-incident review

C.

Chain of custody

D.

Incident logging

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Questions 211

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing a vulnerability assessment process?

Options:

A.

Threat management is enhanced.

B.

Compliance status is improved.

C.

Security metrics are enhanced.

D.

Proactive risk management is facilitated.

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Questions 212

Which of the following is the BEST approach for managing user access permissions to ensure alignment with data classification?

Options:

A.

Enable multi-factor authentication on user and admin accounts.

B.

Review access permissions annually or whenever job responsibilities change

C.

Lock out accounts after a set number of unsuccessful login attempts.

D.

Delegate the management of access permissions to an independent third party.

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Questions 213

When remote access to confidential information is granted to a vendor for analytic purposes, which of the following is the MOST important security consideration?

Options:

A.

Data is encrypted in transit and at rest at the vendor site.

B.

Data is subject to regular access log review.

C.

The vendor must be able to amend data.

D.

The vendor must agree to the organization's information security policy,

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Questions 214

In violation of a policy prohibiting the use of cameras at the office, employees have been issued smartphones and tablet computers with enabled web cameras. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Revise the policy.

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment,

D.

Communicate the acceptable use policy.

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Questions 215

How does an incident response team BEST leverage the results of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Assigning restoration priority during incidents

B.

Determining total cost of ownership (TCO)

C.

Evaluating vendors critical to business recovery

D.

Calculating residual risk after the incident recovery phase

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Questions 216

A security incident has been reported within an organization. When should an inforrnation security manager contact the information owner? After the:

Options:

A.

incident has been confirmed.

B.

incident has been contained.

C.

potential incident has been logged.

D.

incident has been mitigated.

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Questions 217

Which of the following is an information security manager's MOST important course of action when responding to a major security incident that could disrupt the business?

Options:

A.

Follow the escalation process.

B.

Identify the indicators of compromise.

C.

Notify law enforcement.

D.

Contact forensic investigators.

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Questions 218

An information security manager is reporting on open items from the risk register to senior management. Which of the following is MOST important to communicate with regard to these risks?

Options:

A.

Responsible entities

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIS)

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Potential business impact

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Questions 219

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to identify worst-case disruption scenarios?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Business process analysis

C.

SWOT analysis

D.

Cast-benefit analysis

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Questions 220

Which of the following should be the FIRST step to gain approval for outsourcing to address a security gap?

Options:

A.

Collect additional metrics.

B.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

Submit funding request to senior management.

D.

Begin due diligence on the outsourcing company.

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Questions 221

Which of the following is the BEST evidence of alignment between corporate and information security governance?

Options:

A.

Security key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Project resource optimization

C.

Regular security policy reviews

D.

Senior management sponsorship

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Questions 222

The effectiveness of an information security governance framework will BEST be enhanced if:

Options:

A.

consultants review the information security governance framework.

B.

a culture of legal and regulatory compliance is promoted by management.

C.

risk management is built into operational and strategic activities.

D.

IS auditors are empowered to evaluate governance activities

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Questions 223

Which of the following messages would be MOST effective in obtaining senior management's commitment to information security management?

Options:

A.

Effective security eliminates risk to the business.

B.

Adopt a recognized framework with metrics.

C.

Security is a business product and not a process.

D.

Security supports and protects the business.

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Questions 224

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing a vulnerability assessment process?

Options:

A.

Threat management is enhanced.

B.

Compliance status is improved.

C.

Security metrics are enhanced.

D.

Proactive risk management is facilitated.

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Questions 225

Which of the following parties should be responsible for determining access levels to an application that processes client information?

Options:

A.

The business client

B.

The information security tear

C.

The identity and access management team

D.

Business unit management

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Questions 226

In order to understand an organization's security posture, it is MOST important for an organization's senior leadership to:

Options:

A.

evaluate results of the most recent incident response test.

B.

review the number of reported security incidents.

C.

ensure established security metrics are reported.

D.

assess progress of risk mitigation efforts.

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Questions 227

Which of the following change management procedures is MOST likely to cause concern to the information security manager?

Options:

A.

Fallback processes are tested the weekend before changes are made

B.

Users are not notified of scheduled system changes

C.

A manual rather than an automated process is used to compare program versions.

D.

The development manager migrates programs into production

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Questions 228

Which of the following BEST indicates the effectiveness of a recent information security awareness campaign delivered across the organization?

Options:

A.

Decrease in the number of security incidents

B.

Increase in the frequency of security incident escalations

C.

Reduction in the impact of security incidents

D.

Increase in the number of reported security incidents

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Questions 229

The PRIMARY reason to create and externally store the disk hash value when performing forensic data acquisition from a hard disk is to:

Options:

A.

validate the confidentiality during analysis.

B.

reinstate original data when accidental changes occur.

C.

validate the integrity during analysis.

D.

provide backup in case of media failure.

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Questions 230

An information security manager believes that information has been classified inappropriately, = the risk of a breach. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST action?

Options:

A.

Refer the issue to internal audit for a recommendation.

B.

Re-classify the data and increase the security level to meet business risk.

C.

Instruct the relevant system owners to reclassify the data.

D.

Complete a risk assessment and refer the results to the data owners.

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Questions 231

Which of the following BEST facilitates an information security manager's efforts to obtain senior management commitment for an information security program?

Options:

A.

Presenting evidence of inherent risk

B.

Reporting the security maturity level

C.

Presenting compliance requirements

D.

Communicating the residual risk

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Questions 232

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The organization's vision and mission

B.

Results of a comprehensive gap analysis

C.

Information security policies

D.

Audit and regulatory requirements

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Questions 233

Which of the following backup methods requires the MOST time to restore data for an application?

Options:

A.

Full backup

B.

Incremental

C.

Differential

D.

Disk mirroring

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Questions 234

Which risk is introduced when using only sanitized data for the testing of applications?

Options:

A.

Data loss may occur during the testing phase.

B.

Data disclosure may occur during the migration event

C.

Unexpected outcomes may arise in production

D.

Breaches of compliance obligations will occur.

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Questions 235

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of managed security solutions?

Options:

A.

Wider range of capabilities

B.

Easier implementation across an organization

C.

Greater ability to focus on core business operations

D.

Lower cost of operations

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Questions 236

A Seat a-hosting organization's data center houses servers, appli

BEST approach for developing a physical access control policy for the organization?

Options:

A.

Review customers’ security policies.

B.

Conduct a risk assessment to determine security risks and mitigating controls.

C.

Develop access control requirements for each system and application.

D.

Design single sign-on (SSO) or federated access.

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Questions 237

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure appropriate security controls are built into software?

Options:

A.

Integrating security throughout the development process

B.

Performing security testing prior to deployment

C.

Providing standards for implementation during development activities

D.

Providing security training to the software development team

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Exam Code: CISM
Exam Name: Certified Information Security Manager
Last Update: Nov 20, 2024
Questions: 793
$99.6  $249
$90  $225
$79.6  $199
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