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IIA-CCSA Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Compliance tests are procedures designed to verify whether controls are being applied in the manner described in the flowcharts, questionnaires etc.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 5

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.

Internal audit can focus on validating the evaluation conclusions produced by controlself assessment.

B.

controlling can focus on validating the evaluation conclusions produced by controlself assessment.

C.

Internal audit can focus on resource and budgetary produced by control-self assessment.

D.

Internal audit can focus on better risk assessment produced by control-self assessment.

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Questions 6

An organization-wide commitment to quality is called Quality control.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 7

Purchase insurance coverage when:

Options:

A.

To avoiding and eliminating the risks where and when possible.

B.

The risk is catastrophic in nature or beyond the capacity of the organization to absorb from current funds.

C.

The expenditure of premiums is not justified by the services incidental to the insurance contract, or other services.

D.

All of the above

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Questions 8

A document that outlines in visual and narrative format the processes and control points within the process is called:

Options:

A.

Flowchart

B.

Visual aids

C.

Visual illustration

D.

None of the above

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Questions 9

To ensure that data is being used as performance indicators accurately and objectively measure desired outputs and outcomes is called:

Options:

A.

data validation

B.

data verification

C.

data justification

D.

data measure

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Questions 10

Which activities are designed and implemented to reduce, or otherwise manage, risk at levels that were determined to be acceptable to the management and board?

Options:

A.

Risk Management

B.

Risk Mitigation

C.

Risk Measurement

D.

Risk Prioritization

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Questions 11

A coding operation where any form of communication is coded or classified in line with some conceptual framework is known as:

Options:

A.

Content analysis

B.

Program execution

C.

Formal controls

D.

Integrity investigation

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Questions 12

What is based on the extent of impact to the organization as a whole?

Options:

A.

Promotion system

B.

Code of conduct

C.

Rank vulnerability

D.

Rank inherent risk

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Questions 13

Data synthesis is:

Options:

A.

a technique that separately uses single data elements to enhance decision-making

B.

a technique that separately uses multiple data elements to enhance decision-making

C.

a technique that combines and uses single data element to enhance decision-making

D.

a technique that combines and uses multiple data elements to enhance decisionmaking

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Questions 14

Which of the following is NOT the type of organizational structures?

Options:

A.

Flat vs. tall organizational structures

B.

Centralized vs. decentralized organizations

C.

Productive vs. unproductive structures

D.

Mechanistic vs. organic structures

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Questions 15

What involves comparing the program’s performance with other similar programs that are effective?

Options:

A.

Trend analysis

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Comparing efficiency

D.

None of the above

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Questions 16

What is designed to permit everyone in an organization to understand and respond to vital, economic, competitive, productivity and customer quality and value issues?

Options:

A.

Process mapping

B.

Flowcharting

C.

Control charting

D.

System flaws eliminator

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Questions 17

Weak internal controls, lack of fraud policy, fiscal problems are all fraud warning signs of:

Options:

A.

Personality characteristics

B.

Organizational characteristics

C.

Operational characteristics

D.

Risk characteristics

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Questions 18

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.

Workshops involve gathering information from individuals representing different levels in the press.

B.

Workshops involve gathering information from work teams representing different levels in the business unit or function.

C.

Workshops involve gathering information from individuals representing similar levels in the business unit or function.

D.

Workshops involve gathering information from work teams representing similar levels in the lobby.

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Questions 19

Which of the following is NOT the potential benefit of the CSA to the organization?

Options:

A.

Better risk assessment

B.

Improved employee morale

C.

Improved ability to test

D.

Efficient business processes

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Questions 20

Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

A system of design includes the activities that help ensure that management’s strategies and directives are carried out.

B.

A system of process the activities that help ensure that management’s strategies and directives are carried out.

C.

A system of control includes the activities that help ensure that management’s strategies and directives are carried out.

D.

A system of change includes the activities that help ensure that management’s strategies and directives are carried out.

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Questions 21

Outcome measures are:

Options:

A.

only quantitative and measure results associated with only products delivered by an organization.

B.

both quantitative and qualitative and measure both results associated with products and services delivered by an organization.

C.

only qualitative and measure results associated with only services delivered by an organization.

D.

none of the above

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Questions 22

Proficiency in initiating new ideas and leading people in a new direction is called:

Options:

A.

Initiative

B.

Enterprise change

C.

Change catalyst

D.

Change activity

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Questions 23

Which auditors provide varying degrees of assurance about the state of effectiveness of the risk management and control processes of the organization?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Operating managers

C.

Internal & External

D.

Organizational

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Questions 24

A process to identify events potentially affecting the entity and manage risk within its risk appetite is known as:

Options:

A.

Enterprise Risk Management

B.

Stricter Risk Disclosure

C.

Overlapping Risk Classification

D.

Risk Management Strategy

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Questions 25

Who are the people who benefit from the organization, use its products or services or who are otherwise associated?

Options:

A.

Managers

B.

Employees

C.

Stakeholders

D.

Team workers

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Questions 26

In any organization of people, ___________ is the blending of purpose, commitment, capability, monitoring and learning.

Options:

A.

Standardization

B.

Communication

C.

Essence of control

D.

Reliability of internal/external reporting

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Questions 27

What provide means for evaluating the use of inputs to achieve outputs?

Options:

A.

Input/Output measures

B.

Non-Financial measures

C.

Quantifiable measures

D.

Operational measures

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Questions 28

___________ are clearly communicated to all employees and management obtains feedback signifying that the communication has been effective.

Options:

A.

Entity wide objectives

B.

Activity-level objectives

C.

Presentations

D.

Forms and means of communication

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Questions 29

Which evidence is obtained from individuals through oral or written statements such as interviews, surveys and questionnaires?

Options:

A.

Documentary

B.

Testimonial

C.

Analytical

D.

Physical

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Questions 30

When internal auditors establishes trust and thus provides the basis for reliance on their judgment, this refers to:

Options:

A.

Veracity

B.

Authenticity

C.

Integrity

D.

Accuracy

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Questions 31

Which of the following is NOT the potential benefit of the CSA to the internal auditing?

Options:

A.

Improved employee morale

B.

Improved ability to test informal controls

C.

More efficient use of audit resources

D.

Better ability to focus on high-risk areas

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Questions 32

What is used to develop and manage the current period of organizational activity?

Options:

A.

People

B.

Process

C.

Product

D.

Project

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Questions 33

Apply principles of risk management at every management level for identifying, evaluating, avoiding, minimizing and controlling risks, is called:

Options:

A.

Procurement policy

B.

Risk Policy

C.

Risk procedure

D.

Policy statement

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Questions 34

Work group participants may be suspicious and even hostile, seeing CSA as a management ploy to find out more about them, when:

Options:

A.

auditor implements several critical points with respect to use of CSA

B.

auditor doesn’t able to recognize several critical points with respect to use of CSA

C.

auditor reports several critical points with respect to use of CSA

D.

auditor recognizes several critical points with respect to use of CSA

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Questions 35

Project risk assessment is:

Options:

A.

A blend of risk assessment in the implementation phase and risk management in the planning phase.

B.

A blend of risk assessment in the designing phase and risk management in the planning phase.

C.

A blend of risk assessment in the planning phase and risk management in the implementation phase.

D.

A blend of risk assessment in the design phase and risk management in the implementation phase.

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Questions 36

Who identified internal control components including Control environment, Information & communication, risk assessment, control activities and Monitoring?

Options:

A.

The American Institute of Standards (AIS)

B.

The American Institute of Certified Professional Accountants (AICPA)

C.

The American Institute of Certified Control (AICC)

D.

The American Institute of Professional Studies (AIPS

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Questions 37

A weak control is equal to high vulnerability and a strong control is equal to the low vulnerability.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 38

To relate high-level goals, aligned with and supporting the entity’s mission/vision is called:

Options:

A.

Strategic act

B.

Operational law

C.

Objective setting

D.

Event identification

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Questions 39

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.

Competency refers to the validity and reliability of audit evidence.

B.

Sufficiency refers to the validity and reliability of resources.

C.

Capability refers to the capacity and reliability of audit evidence.

D.

Consistency refers to the steadiness and reliability of audit evidence

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Questions 40

What is the additional evidence in support of primary or secondary evidence?

Options:

A.

Trend comparison

B.

Data synthesis

C.

Risk control

D.

Corroborative evidence

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Questions 41

_________ structures tend to evolve in highly formal, centralized organizations where employees are subject to strict controls and little flexibility in decision making.

Options:

A.

Simple

B.

Professional

C.

Mechanistic

D.

Organic

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Questions 42

To provide management with information to mitigate the negative consequences associated with accomplishing the organization’s objectives is the:

Options:

A.

Organizational audit activity’s assessment plan

B.

Risk audit activity’s risk plan

C.

Internal audit activity’s audit plan

D.

Operational audit activity’s impact plan

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Questions 43

Based on the results of risk assessment, which should evaluate the adequacy effectiveness of controls encompassing the organization’s operations and information system?

Options:

A.

External audit activity

B.

Internal audit activity

C.

Organizational adequate control

D.

System’s internal effectiveness

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Questions 44

Corporate governance is the organization’s strategic response to management.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 45

Which of the following is NOT the reason why organizations use strategic planning?

Options:

A.

To establish and help achieve business objectives.

B.

To focus resources on areas that is key to the organization’s success.

C.

To communicate established objectives to stakeholders.

D.

To neglect establish criteria against which to measure progress.

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Questions 46

Fill in the Blanks

________ are the targets or goals that an organization to needs to achieve in order to fulfill its purpose as articulated in its mission, mission and value statements.

Options:

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Questions 47

Post implementation reviews of projects allow management to assess the degree to which the objectives were achieved for the resources expended in which phase of project management?

Options:

A.

Implementation

B.

Follow-up

C.

Reporting

D.

Analyzing

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Questions 48

To improve the quality of financial reporting through a focus on corporate governance, internal controls and ethical standards, is the mission of:

Options:

A.

Committee on Sponsoring Organizations

B.

Criteria of Commitment

C.

Control Auditors Committee

D.

Control risk property value

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Questions 49

To make sure the performance data is accurate, sufficient and reliable is called:

Options:

A.

data validation

B.

data verification

C.

data reliability

D.

data measurement

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Questions 50

Risk assessment and developing plans and processes for risk mitigation is the purpose of:

Options:

A.

Risk Planning

B.

Risk Monitoring

C.

Risk Identification

D.

Risk Management

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Questions 51

The ability to take charge and inspire with a compelling vision is known as:

Options:

A.

Directed vision

B.

Visionary leadership

C.

Visionary management

D.

Intended vision

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Questions 52

A process affected by an organization’s management and other personnel, designed to provide reasonable assurance regarding the achievement of objectives is known as:

Options:

A.

Design Process

B.

Control Process

C.

Self-reliance Process

D.

Production Process

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Questions 53

New employees, consultants and contractors must receive security awareness training and supporting documentation at the time of employment refers to:

Options:

A.

Employee orientation

B.

Confidentiality agreement

C.

Both A & B

D.

Neither A nor B

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Questions 54

Cost effective refers to:

Options:

A.

To make less use of obsolete technology

B.

To degree to use fewer resources

C.

To make expenses controlled at hand

D.

The degree of change necessary to solve the problem

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Questions 55

Which of the following is NOT the COSO internal controls interrelated component?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Information and communication

C.

Internal auditing

D.

Control activity

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Questions 56

Which program evaluations focus on the results of the program in order to determine the program’s effect?

Options:

A.

Production

B.

Performance

C.

Summative

D.

Output

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Questions 57

No policy regarding identification, sale and disposal of obsolete and surplus materials is a fraud warning sign of Inventory

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 58

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.

Checklist, a document similar to questionnaire that contains more narrative and less Yes/No questions.

B.

Memorandum, a document similar to questionnaire that contains less narrative and more Yes/No questions.

C.

Checklist, a document similar to questionnaire that contains less narrative and more Yes/No questions.

D.

Memorandum, a document similar to questionnaire that contains more narrative and less Yes/No questions.

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Questions 59

Description, action steps, time frames, delineated responsibilities are all factors of Objective statements.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 60

Operations control is related to the:

Options:

A.

Effective and efficiency use of the entity’s cost.

B.

Effective and efficiency use of the entity’s space.

C.

Effective and efficiency use of the entity’s time.

D.

Effective and efficiency use of the entity’s resources.

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Questions 61

___________ is charged with overseeing the establishment, administration and evaluation of the processes of risk management and control.

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Junior management

C.

Governance

D.

Organization

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Questions 62

Alleged perpetrators have the right to expect an objective investigation and that allegations against them will be kept as confidential as possible until they are substantiated, this refers to;

Options:

A.

Standardized enforcement

B.

Professionalism maintenance

C.

Classified investigation

D.

Chronological acts

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Questions 63

Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

Integrated framework defines internal control broadly and limits internal controls to external controls over financial reporting.

B.

Integrated framework defines external control broadly and does not limit external controls to external controls over financial reporting.

C.

Integrated framework defines internal control broadly and limits internal controls to accounting controls over financial reporting.

D.

Integrated framework defines internal control broadly and does not limit internal controls to accounting controls over financial reporting.

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Questions 64

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.

The organization’s competence to standards is appropriate for its size and the nature of its operations.

B.

The organization’s operating style is appropriate for its size and the nature of its operations.

C.

The organization’s organizational structure is appropriate for its size and the nature of its operations.

D.

The organization’s organizational authority and responsibility is appropriate for its size and the nature of its operations.

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Questions 65

The combination of processes and structures implemented by the board in order to inform, direct, manage and monitor the activities of the organization toward its achievements is called:

Options:

A.

Supervision

B.

Overseeing

C.

Monitoring capitals

D.

Governance

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Questions 66

Which following is a classification of Control self-assessment workshop?

Options:

A.

Presentation software

B.

Electronic mailing

C.

Project management software

D.

None of the above

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Questions 67

____________ is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add value and improve an organization’s operations.

Options:

A.

Audit-committee approval

B.

Cross-enterprise

C.

Internal auditing

D.

External auditing

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Questions 68

A methodology that can be used by managers and internal auditors to assess the adequacy of an organization’s risk management and control processes is called:

Options:

A.

Control self-assessment

B.

Control certifications

C.

Managerial control

D.

Risk control

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Questions 69

Substantive tests are:

Options:

A.

procedures designed to test for validity of flowcharts.

B.

activities designed to test for risk assessment.

C.

procedures designed to test for errors in the system of internal control.

D.

procedures designed to test for errors in the automated control systems.

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Questions 70

After the risks to the organization have been identified, management undertakes a thorough and complete analysis of their possible effects, this is called:

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Risk management

C.

Risk analysis

D.

Risk control

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Questions 71

Recommendations should correspond to the overall goals of the organization and relate directly to the problem at hand is called:

Options:

A.

Sufficient

B.

Feasible

C.

Practical

D.

Reliable

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Questions 72

In traditional approach, objectives used were of management’s and in control selfassessment approach it is of work teams’.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 73

The process an organization uses to determine where it is headed in the coming years, the objectives it hopes to achieve, the methods it will use and its performance measures, is called:

Options:

A.

Strategic Planning

B.

Premeditated Planning

C.

Deliberate Planning

D.

Intended Planning

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Questions 74

Proficiency at cultivating and maintaining a web of relationships means to establish a:

Options:

A.

Aptitude association

B.

Competence union

C.

Connection

D.

Building bond

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Questions 75

___________ is the uncertainty or exposures that exist assuming no controls are in place.

Options:

A.

Systematic risk

B.

Business risk

C.

Procedural risk

D.

Inherent risk

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Questions 76

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.

Control environment is designed to prevent and detect errors and omissions in the conduct of routine business functions.

B.

Control activities are designed to prevent and detect errors and omissions in the conduct of routine business functions.

C.

Risk assessment is designed to prevent and detect errors and omissions in the conduct of routine business functions.

D.

Monitoring is designed to prevent and detect errors and omissions in the conduct of routine business functions.

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Questions 77

_____________ define specific organizational goals and should be reasonably obtainable and contain execution strategies.

Options:

A.

Operating objectives

B.

Resourcing objectives

C.

Organizational objectives

D.

Executable objectives

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Questions 78

What says that control policies and procedures must be established and executed to help ensure that the actions identified by management as necessary to address risks to achievement of entity’s objectives are effectively carried out?

Options:

A.

Control activity

B.

Control environment

C.

Control guideline

D.

Control procedure

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Questions 79

A process for gathering information, without detailed verification, on the activity being examined is called:

Options:

A.

Examination

B.

Analysis

C.

Investigation

D.

Survey

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Questions 80

An ethical tone has been established at the top of the organization and has been communicated throughout the organization.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 81

Risk assessment characteristic of the internal auditor’s paradigm has scenario planning as its new paradigm and its old paradigm is:

Options:

A.

External control

B.

Internal control

C.

Independent appraisal function

D.

Risk factors

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Exam Code: IIA-CCSA
Exam Name: Certification in Control Self-Assessment® (CCSA®)
Last Update: Apr 4, 2025
Questions: 270
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