CCRN-Adult Sample Questions Answers

The absence of regulators from O2 tanks is a serious issue that can affect patient care1. The nurse manager is in a position to address this problem effectively by ensuring the availability of necessary equipment2. Therefore, the best action would be to inform the nurse manager of the need for more regulators123. While documenting the issue and reporting to the shift supervisor are important, they do not directly address the problem. Forming a task force could be helpful, but it might take more time to implement solutions23.

Hypoperfusion is a condition in which the blood flow to the organs and tissues is insufficient to meet their metabolic demands. Hypoperfusion can result from third-degree AV block, which is a complete loss of communication between the atria and the ventricles. This causes the ventricles to beat very slowly or not at all, leading to a low cardiac output and reduced blood pressure. Hypoperfusion can cause symptoms such as dizziness, fainting, confusion, chest pain, shortness of breath, and shock12. Heart failure, hypoxia, and chest pain are possible complications of hypoperfusion, but they are not the most common problem in patients with third-degree AV block.

The patient’s ABG values show hypoxemia, which is a low level of oxygen in the blood. This can be caused by various pulmonary disorders that impair gas exchange, such as pneumonia, pulmonary edema, pulmonary embolism, or acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The patient’s PAP (pulmonary artery pressure) is elevated, indicating increased resistance in the pulmonary circulation. This can also result from pulmonary dysfunction, as the lungs become stiff and inflamed, or from pulmonary hypertension, which is a chronic condition that affects the small arteries in the lungs. The patient’s PAOP (pulmonary artery occlusion pressure) is normal, suggesting that the left ventricle is not failing and that the patient is not hypovolemic or hypervolemic. The patient’s CI (cardiac index) is also normal, indicating adequate cardiac output. Therefore, the most likely cause of the patient’s hypoxemia and dyspnea is pulmonary dysfunction.

References:

• AACN. (2023). CCRN (Adult) Exam Handbook. Retrieved from [CCRN Exam Handbook], p. 18.
• AACN. (2023). CCRN (Adult) Exam Blueprint. Retrieved from [CCRN Exam Blueprint], p. 2.

JVD stands for jugular venous distension, which is a sign of increased pressure in the right atrium and the superior vena cava. Hepatomegaly means enlargement of the liver, which can occur due to congestion of blood in the portal vein and the hepatic vein. Both JVD and hepatomegaly are common symptoms of right-sided heart failure, as they indicate fluid retention and backup in the systemic circulation12. Hypotension and oliguria are not specific to right-sided heart failure, as they can also occur in left-sided heart failure or other conditions that affect the cardiac output and renal perfusion. Hypertension and polyuria are unlikely to be seen in right-sided heart failure, as they indicate increased blood pressure and urine output, which are opposite to the effects of reduced cardiac function and fluid overload. Pulmonary edema and restlessness are more characteristic of left-sided heart failure, as they indicate fluid accumulation and impaired gas exchange in the lungs12.

Ventilator-associated events (VAEs) can be prevented by reducing the risk of aspiration and maintaining airway hygiene. Subglottic suctioning is an effective measure to remove secretions that accumulate above the endotracheal tube cuff, which can harbor bacteria and lead to infection. This intervention helps prevent the development of pneumonia and other VAEs. References: AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course, AACN CCRN Exam Handbook.

The intended effects of medications for a patient in acute CHF are to reduce CVP and reduce SVR, as this would decrease the preload and afterload on the failing heart and improve the cardiac output and tissue perfusion. CVP (central venous pressure) is a measure of the pressure in the right atrium and reflects the volume status of the patient. SVR (systemic vascular resistance) is a measure of the resistance in the systemic circulation and reflects the tone of the blood vessels. Medications that can reduce CVP and SVR in acute CHF include diuretics, nitrates, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, and vasodilators12. Increasing CVP and reducing SVR would increase the preload and decrease the afterload, which may be beneficial for some patients with low cardiac output and low filling pressures, but not for patients with acute CHF and volume overload3. Reducing CVP and increasing SVR would decrease the preload and increase the afterload, which would worsen the cardiac function and oxygen demand in acute CHF3. Increasing CVP and increasing SVR would increase both the preload and the afterload, which would also worsen the cardiac function and oxygen demand in acute CHF3.

References:

• 1: Acute decompensated heart failure: Management - UpToDate4, p. 5-6.
• 2: Acute heart failure: diagnosis and management | Guidance | NICE, p. 8-9.
• 3: Hemodynamic monitoring in acute heart failure - UpToDate, p. 3-4.

The patient has signs of hypovolemic shock, which is characterized by low MAP, low PAOP, low CI, and high SVR. The patient needs fluid resuscitation to restore intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion. Loop diuretic, vasopressors, and whole blood are not indicated in this case.

References:

• Reference Guide for CCRN (Adult), page 14.
• Adult CCRN/CCRN-E/CCRN-K Certification Review Course Online - Individual Purchase, Module 1: Cardiovascular, Part 1: Shock.

Kernig's and Brudzinski's signs are classic clinical indicators of meningeal irritation, commonly associated with conditions such as meningitis. Kernig's sign is positive when there is resistance and pain upon extending the knee from a flexed position, and Brudzinski's sign is positive when flexion of the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hips and knees. These signs are not indicative of autonomic hyperreflexia, adrenal insufficiency, or increased intracranial pressure. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course

For a patient with unstable angina, the major goal of treatment is to decrease myocardial oxygen consumption. This can be achieved by reducing heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial contractility to lessen the workload on the heart and reduce the demand for oxygen. This helps in preventing further ischemia and potential myocardial infarction. Treatment strategies may include the use of medications such as beta-blockers, nitrates, and calcium channel blockers, which all help in decreasing the oxygen demand of the heart.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 10

For an oncology patient presenting with hematuria and bleeding from injection sites, reviewing the coagulation panel first is crucial. This test will provide information on the patient's clotting status, helping to identify potential coagulopathies such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which is common in cancer patients. References: = AACN Certification and Core Review for High Acuity and Critical Care, 7th Edition, AACN Handbook for CCRN Certification, pp. 112-115.

The laboratory values indicate hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS), characterized by high glucose levels, high osmolality, and dehydration. The primary management includes aggressive IV hydration to correct dehydration and improve circulation. Hemodialysis and intubation are not immediate priorities unless there are other indications, and osmotic diuresis is not appropriate in this context. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook and AACN's Certification Review Course materials.

When a patient exhibits anxiety and threats of harm, it is crucial to de-escalate the situation through verbal communication and engagement. By encouraging the patient to verbalize their feelings, the nurse can address the patient's fears and anxieties, reducing the likelihood of aggression. This approach promotes a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship and ensures the safety of both the patient and healthcare staff. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course

Dopamine, when administered at a dose of 10 mcg/kg/min, acts primarily as an alpha-adrenergic agonist, leading to vasoconstriction. This results in increased systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and increased mean arterial pressure (MAP), which are desired outcomes in the treatment of septic shock. This effect helps improve perfusion to vital organs and stabilize hemodynamics in patients with septic shock. References: =

• CCRN (Adult) Certification Review Course Online: Cardiovascular and Hemodynamics.
• American Association of Critical-Care Nurses (AACN). (2024). CCRN Exam Handbook. Retrieved from AACN CCRN Exam Handbook
• Adult CCRN/CCRN-E/CCRN-K Certification Review Course Online. AACN

The signs and symptoms described in the patient post-bariatric surgery, including anxiety, restlessness, increased abdominal pain, and subcutaneous crepitus over the neck, suggest a potential anastomotic leak, which is a surgical emergency. Given the vital signs indicating possible sepsis or shock (elevated heart rate, increased respiratory rate, and fever), immediate surgical intervention is likely required to repair the leak and prevent further complications. References: CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN, page 30, section on GI surgical emergencies.

In the context of an unstable pelvic fracture, placing a binder across the patient's hips is crucial to stabilize the fracture and reduce the risk of further internal bleeding and damage. This intervention helps in temporarily stabilizing the pelvis until definitive surgical treatment can be performed. Transporting the patient for an MRI is not the immediate priority, as the primary goal is to stabilize the patient. Type and crossmatching PRBCs are important but should follow immediate stabilization measures. Administering a sedative to reduce movement can be considered, but it is not the top priority over physical stabilization of the fracture. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course

The patient's ABG results indicate respiratory acidosis (pH 7.33, PaCO2 48 mm Hg) with a slightly elevated temperature (103.2° F). In the context of fever and acidosis, hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen decreases, a phenomenon described by the Bohr effect. This means that hemoglobin will release oxygen more readily to the tissues. Factors like increased temperature and acidosis cause a rightward shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, reducing the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 44

Shock is the most common prerenal cause of acute tubular necrosis (ATN). In the context of prerenal conditions, shock leads to decreased renal perfusion and subsequent ischemia, which can cause damage to the renal tubules. Other options such as blood transfusion reaction, crush injury, and beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection can lead to renal damage but are not the most common prerenal causes of ATN. References: CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN, page 28, section on Renal/GU.

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Cellular dehydration is one of the potentially life-threatening consequences of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which is a condition that occurs when the body does not have enough insulin to use glucose for energy and starts to break down fat instead. This produces ketones, which are acidic substances that accumulate in the blood and urine. DKA causes hyperglycemia, which is a high level of glucose in the blood, and osmotic diuresis, which is the loss of water and electrolytes through the urine. This leads to cellular dehydration, which is the shrinkage of the cells due to the loss of water from the intracellular fluid. Cellular dehydration can affect the brain and cause neurological symptoms, such as confusion, lethargy, coma, and death12.

Other potentially life-threatening consequences of DKA include metabolic acidosis, which is a low pH of the blood due to the excess of ketones, and respiratory compensation, which is the increase of the breathing rate and depth to expel carbon dioxide and lower the acidity of the blood12. These are not the same as metabolic alkalosis or respiratory alkalosis, which are conditions that cause a high pH of the blood due to the loss of acids or the retention of bases2. Intracellular hyperglycemia is not a consequence of DKA, as the glucose cannot enter the cells without insulin and remains in the extracellular fluid12.

This is the nurse’s best initial response, as it expresses empathy, validates the patient’s feelings, and assesses the patient’s risk of suicide. Depression is a common and serious mental health condition that affects older adults, especially those living in nursing homes. Depression can cause persistent sadness, hopelessness, loss of interest, and suicidal thoughts or behaviors. The nurse should screen the patient for depression using a validated tool, such as the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) 1, and ask about any suicidal ideation or plans. The nurse should also provide emotional support, education, and referral to appropriate resources for the patient.

B. “Those feelings should resolve when the medication you’ve started has a chance to take effect.”

This is not the nurse’s best initial response, as it dismisses the patient’s feelings, implies that the patient just needs to wait for the medication to work, and does not address the patient’s psychosocial needs. Antidepressants are one of the treatment options for depression, but they may take several weeks to show their full effect, and they may not work for everyone. The nurse should also explore other factors that may contribute to the patient’s depression, such as social isolation, loss of autonomy, chronic illness, or grief, and offer interventions that may help the patient cope, such as counseling, psychotherapy, cognitive-behavioral therapy, or social activities.

C. “I understand how you feel. We all get that way when we’re depressed.”

This is not the nurse’s best initial response, as it assumes that the nurse knows how the patient feels, minimizes the patient’s experience, and generalizes the patient’s condition. Depression is not a normal or inevitable part of aging, and it affects each person differently. The nurse should not compare the patient’s feelings to their own or to others, but rather acknowledge and respect the patient’s unique perspective and situation. The nurse should also avoid using words like “we” or “you” that may create a sense of distance or judgment, and instead use words like “I” or “me” that may convey a sense of empathy or rapport.

D. “Have you talked to anyone about what is bothering you?”

This is not the nurse’s best initial response, as it may sound like the nurse is trying to avoid listening to the patient, or that the patient is bothering the nurse with their problems. The nurse should not imply that the patient should talk to someone else, but rather show interest and willingness to listen to the patient. The nurse should also use open-ended questions that invite the patient to share more, such as “How are you feeling today?” or “What has been on your mind lately?” The nurse should also use active listening skills, such as nodding, paraphrasing, reflecting, or summarizing, to demonstrate understanding and engagement.

The patient who has been in the unit for 60 hours and reports agitation, noise disturbances, and an inability to get peace and quiet may be experiencing sleep disturbances. Factors such as the ICU environment, frequent interventions, and the medications being administered (e.g., benzodiazepines, opioids, and bronchodilators) can significantly disrupt sleep patterns, leading to further agitation and delirium. Addressing the patient's sleep hygiene and implementing measures to promote rest can be beneficial.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 52

Pulmonary contusion leads to damage to lung parenchyma, resulting in alveolar hemorrhage and edema. This causes increased airway resistance and decreased gas diffusion due to the inflammatory response and accumulation of fluid within the alveoli, impairing effective gas exchange and reducing lung compliance.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 40

The patient has signs of myxedema coma, a life-threatening complication of hypothyroidism. The patient needs immediate treatment with thyroid hormone replacement, glucocorticoids, and supportive care. One of the supportive measures is to correct the hypothermia that often accompanies myxedema coma. A forced air warming blanket is a device that delivers warm air through a hose to a blanket that covers the patient. This helps to raise the patient’s core temperature and prevent further complications. Insulin drip is not indicated, as the patient does not have diabetes or hyperglycemia. 3% saline is a hypertonic solution that can worsen the hyponatremia and fluid overload that are common in myxedema coma. Diuretics are not recommended, as they can cause dehydration and electrolyte imbalance in the patient.

References:

• Myxedema Coma: Diagnosis and Treatment | AAFP
• Myxedema coma - UpToDate
• Myxedema: Symptoms, treatment & coma - Medical News Today

Given the symptoms of unilateral facial droop and slurred speech, a stroke is highly suspected. A head and neck CT scan is the most appropriate initial imaging to quickly evaluate for the presence of an ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke, which is critical for determining the appropriate treatment plan. An MRI may provide more detailed information later but is not the initial test of choice in the acute setting. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course

When a patient has been declared brain dead, the appropriate initial action for a nurse who has not previously discussed organ donation with a family is to consult the organ donation liaison. These professionals are trained to handle sensitive conversations about organ donation and can provide the necessary support and information to the family, ensuring that the process is handled respectfully and in accordance with legal and ethical guidelines. References: =

• CCRN (Adult) Certification Review Course Online: Professional Caring and Ethical Practice.
• American Association of Critical-Care Nurses (AACN). (2024). CCRN Exam Handbook. Retrieved from AACN CCRN Exam Handbook
• Adult CCRN/CCRN-E/CCRN-K Certification Review Course Online. AACN

An increase in intracranial pressure (ICP) above 25 mm Hg often results in changes in the waveform morphology observed in the monitoring of intracranial pressure. Specifically, the amplitude of P2 becomes greater than P1, which is indicative of decreased intracranial compliance. This pattern is known as the "pathological waveform," suggesting increased intracranial pressure and decreased ability of the brain to accommodate the pressure changes. References: CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN, page 23, section on Neurological.

The appropriate outcomes for a patient with status asthmaticus are normal PaCO2 and increased FEV1. Status asthmaticus is a severe and life-threatening asthma exacerbation that does not respond to conventional treatment. It causes severe bronchoconstriction, air trapping, and mucus plugging, leading to hypoxemia, hypercapnia, and respiratory failure. The goals of treatment are to reverse the airway obstruction, improve gas exchange, and prevent complications. PaCO2 is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood, which reflects the adequacy of ventilation. FEV1 is the forced expiratory volume in one second, which measures the amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled in the first second of a breath. It reflects the degree of bronchoconstriction and airflow limitation. A patient with status asthmaticus typically has elevated PaCO2 and reduced FEV1 due to poor ventilation and severe obstruction. Therefore, normalizing PaCO2 and increasing FEV1 indicate improvement in the patient’s condition and response to treatment.

References:

• Status Asthmaticus: Symptoms, Causes, Diagnosis, and Treatment - Healthline: This article states that “Status asthmaticus is a severe form of asthma with symptoms similar to a typical asthma attack. But for status asthmaticus, symptoms may worsen as the asthma attack continues. Status asthmaticus is an older, less precise term for what’s now more commonly known as acute severe asthma or a severe asthma exacerbation. It refers to an asthma attack that doesn’t improve with traditional treatments, such as inhaled bronchodilators. These attacks can last for several minutes or even hours.”
• Status Asthmaticus (Severe Acute Asthma) - WebMD: This article states that “Status asthmaticus is a severe asthma attack that doesn’t get better with your usual treatments. It can be life-threatening and needs urgent medical attention. If you have a bad asthma attack and your rescue inhaler or your nebulizer doesn’t help, you need medical care right away. If an attack comes on quickly and it doesn’t respond to regular treatment, it can lead to status asthmaticus.”
• Management of Status Asthmaticus | SpringerLink: This article states that “Status asthmaticus is a life-threatening condition characterized by progressive respiratory failure despite aggressive treatment. It is defined as an acute exacerbation of asthma that remains unresponsive to initial treatment with bronchodilators. Status asthmaticus can vary in severity from mild to fatal. The pathophysiology of status asthmaticus is complex and involves airway inflammation, bronchospasm, airway edema, mucus plugging, and increased airway resistance. The clinical manifestations of status asthmaticus include dyspnea, wheezing, cough, chest tightness, tachypnea, tachycardia, hypoxemia, and hypercapnia. The diagnosis of status asthmaticus is based on history, physical examination, and laboratory tests, such as arterial blood gas analysis, spirometry, and chest radiography. The management of status asthmaticus consists of oxygen therapy, inhaled beta-2 agonists, systemic corticosteroids, and adjunctive therapies, such as anticholinergics, magnesium sulfate, ketamine, and noninvasive or invasive mechanical ventilation. The goals of treatment are to relieve bronchoconstriction, reduce airway inflammation, correct hypoxemia, normalize or reduce carbon dioxide levels, and avoid or treat complications.”

The caloric irrigation test, also known as the oculovestibular reflex test, is used to assess brainstem function in patients, especially those who are comatose. In this test, cold water is introduced into the ear canal, which should induce a predictable response if the brainstem is intact. The normal response to cold water irrigation is nystagmus with slow deviation of the eyes toward the side of the cold water (in this case, the left) and a fast phase of eye movement (nystagmus) away from the side of the cold water (to the right). This indicates that the brainstem pathways are functioning properly. References: =

• American Association of Critical-Care Nurses (AACN). (2024). CCRN Exam Handbook. Retrieved from AACN CCRN Exam Handbook
• Adult CCRN/CCRN-E/CCRN-K Certification Review Course Online. AACN

The patient’s data indicate that the patient is in shock, which is a life-threatening condition characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion and organ dysfunction. The patient has a low blood pressure, a high heart rate, a fever, and a metabolic acidosis, which suggest that the patient may have septic shock, which is caused by a severe infection that triggers a systemic inflammatory response. The nurse should anticipate an order to administer phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine), which is a vasopressor agent that constricts the blood vessels and increases the blood pressure and tissue perfusion. Phenylephrine is recommended as a first-line agent for septic shock by the Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines1. 8.4% sodium bicarbonate is not indicated for the treatment of septic shock, as it may worsen the acid-base balance and increase the risk of complications2. 0.9% sodium chloride is a normal saline solution that may be used for fluid resuscitation, but it may not be sufficient to restore the blood pressure and may cause fluid overload, hyperchloremia, and kidney injury3. Amiodarone (Cordarone) is an antiarrhythmic drug that is used to treat ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation, but it is not effective for septic shock and may cause hypotension, bradycardia, and other adverse effects4.

References:

• Surviving Sepsis Campaign. (2020). Surviving Sepsis Campaign: Guidelines on the Management of Critically Ill Adults with Coronavirus Disease 2019 (COVID-19). Retrieved from 1, p. 16.
• Marik, P. E., & Bellomo, R. (2013). A rational approach to fluid therapy in sepsis. British Journal of Anaesthesia, 110(3), 323-329. Retrieved from 2, p. 327.
• Semler, M. W., & Rice, T. W. (2019). Saline versus balanced crystalloids for intravenous fluid therapy in the emergency department: study protocol for a cluster-randomized, multiple-crossover trial. Trials, 20(1), 1-10. Retrieved from 3, p. 2-3.
• Lexicomp Online. (2021). Amiodarone. Retrieved from 4, p. 1-2.

Verified Answer: B. Consult with the pharmacist on the effects of the specific herbs. Herbal therapy is a type of complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) that uses plants or plant extracts to treat various health conditions. Many patients use herbal therapy for various reasons, such as cultural beliefs, personal preferences, or dissatisfaction with conventional medicine. However, herbal therapy is not without risks and challenges, especially in the hospital setting. Some of the potential problems include lack of standardization, quality control, and regulation of herbal products; adverse effects and interactions with other medications; and ethical and legal issues regarding informed consent, documentation, and liability12. Therefore, the nurse’s first action should be to consult with the pharmacist on the effects of the specific herbs that the family wants to administer to the patient. The pharmacist can provide information on the safety, efficacy, dosage, and compatibility of the herbs with the patient’s condition and current medications. The nurse should also inform the patient’s primary provider and obtain an order for the herbs before allowing the patient to take them. The nurse should document the use of herbal therapy in the patient’s medical record and monitor the patient for any adverse effects or changes in response to other treatments. Informing the family that herbal therapy is not appropriate in the hospital is not respectful of the patient’s autonomy and cultural values. Allowing the patient to take the herbs without consulting the pharmacist and obtaining an order is not safe and may violate the hospital’s policies and standards of care.

A patient with acetaminophen overdose is at risk for acute liver failure, which can lead to coagulopathy. This condition is often marked by an increased International Normalized Ratio (INR) due to impaired synthesis of clotting factors in the liver. Decreasing level of consciousness can also result from hepatic encephalopathy, a complication of liver failure. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook and AACN's Certification Review Course materials.

A negative apnea test means that the patient does not breathe spontaneously when disconnected from the ventilator and exposed to a high level of carbon dioxide, which normally stimulates breathing. A negative apnea test is one of the criteria for brain death, as it indicates the loss of brainstem function. A positive vestibulo-ocular reflex, also known as the oculocephalic or doll’s eye reflex, means that the eyes move in the opposite direction of the head when the head is turned. A positive cough reflex means that the patient coughs when the trachea is stimulated. A negative cold caloric test means that the eyes do not move when cold water is injected into the ear canal. All these tests assess the integrity of the brainstem, and a positive result would exclude brain death. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

References:

• Diagnosis of brain death - UpToDate, under “Apnea testing”.
• Brain Death | Critical Care Medicine | JAMA | JAMA Network, under “How Is Brain Death Diagnosed?”.
• The 2023 AAN/AAP/CNS/SCCM Pediatric and Adult Brain Death/Death by …, under “Apnea Testing”.

In the setting of an acute anterior wall myocardial infarction (MI) with an S3 gallop, the patient is likely experiencing heart failure and possibly acute pulmonary edema. The appropriate treatment includes vasodilators to reduce afterload and diuretics to decrease preload and pulmonary congestion. This combination helps to improve cardiac output and reduce the workload on the heart. References: CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN, page 20, section on Cardiovascular.

Early enteral feeding in patients with sepsis is crucial as it helps maintain gut integrity, thereby minimizing the translocation of gastrointestinal (GI) bacteria. The presence of nutrients in the gut lumen supports the mucosal barrier function and reduces bacterial translocation, which can lead to secondary infections and further complications in septic patients. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook and AACN's Certification Review Course materials.

The nurse’s most appropriate action is to review recent published research about bedrest protocols, as this would provide the nurse with the most current and reliable evidence to guide clinical practice and improve patient outcomes. Bedrest protocols after cardiac catheterization may vary depending on the type of access site, the use of closure devices, the patient’s risk factors, and the clinician’s preference. However, there is a growing body of research that supports early ambulation and shorter bedrest duration to reduce the risk of complications, such as bleeding, hematoma, back pain, and venous thromboembolism, and to enhance patient comfort and satisfaction123. Asking about obtaining an independent evaluation of unit outcomes, conducting an informal chart review and outcome evaluation of patients treated with different bedrest protocols, or asking the nursing supervisor to request standardized physician orders for patients who have undergone catheterization are not the most appropriate actions, as they may not reflect the best available evidence, may be biased or incomplete, or may not address the patient’s concern.

References:

• 1: Bedrest After Cardiac Catheterization: A Systematic Review and Meta-analysis4, p. 1-2.
• 2: Early Ambulation After Cardiac Catheterization: A Literature Review, p. 1-2.
• 3: Bed Rest After Cardiac Catheterization: A Review of the Evidence, p. 1-2.

When dealing with a spouse who feels helpless, the most effective nursing intervention is to identify and reinforce their support systems. This helps the spouse feel less isolated and more empowered. Offering solutions to problems, encouraging other family members to make decisions, or providing reassurance that visiting is not necessary do not directly address the spouse's feelings of helplessness and may even contribute to feelings of exclusion or inadequacy. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course

Verified Answer: C. establish a schedule with the provider. Neurological assessments are important for monitoring the patient’s neurological status and detecting any changes that may indicate a complication or improvement. However, frequent interruptions of sleep can have negative effects on the patient’s health and well-being, such as impaired cognition, mood, immune function, and wound healing. Therefore, the nurse should collaborate with the provider to establish a schedule for neurologic assessments that balances the need for monitoring and the need for rest. This may involve reducing the frequency of assessments during the night, clustering other interventions to minimize disruptions, and using non-invasive methods of assessment when possible. Discontinuing neurologic assessments, encouraging the patient to sleep between assessments, or moving the patient to a quieter part of the unit are not appropriate actions as they do not address the root cause of the problem or ensure adequate monitoring of the patient’s condition.

A copious amount of serous drainage from a liver resection incision may indicate a bile leak, which can cause pain, infection, and delayed healing. The nurse should anticipate applying several abdominal dressings to absorb the fluid and protect the wound. The nurse should also monitor the patient for signs of infection, such as fever, increased white blood cell count, and foul-smelling drainage. The nurse should notify the surgeon of the excessive drainage and follow the orders for further interventions, such as imaging studies, drainage catheter placement, or surgical repair. Antibiotics may be prescribed, but they are not the first-line treatment for a bile leak. Incision and debridement of the wound may be necessary if there is necrotic tissue or infection, but it is not the initial action. Applying a drainage pouch to the site may not be sufficient to contain the large amount of fluid and may increase the risk of skin breakdown.

References:

• Problems after cancer surgery to remove part of your liver: This article states that “The bile ducts connect the liver and gallbladder to the small bowel. There is a risk of bile leaking from the ducts on the cut surface of the liver. This may cause pain, sickness and a high temperature. Rarely, you might need another operation to repair the leak.”
• Understanding Liver Abscess Treatment - Saint Luke’s Health System: This article states that “The provider uses CT scan or ultrasound to help place the wire in the right spot. A thin, flexible tube (catheter) is then placed over the wire and into the abscess. The tube is left in place for 5 to 7 days to drain the fluid. In some cases, surgery may be done to cut into the liver abscess and drain it.”
• How Much Time Does it Take to Recover from Liver Surgery?: This article states that “If you have any drainage from your incision or if the area around your incision is puffy or red, visit your surgeon. Take a shower every day with warm water. When you are ready to take solid foods, make sure to eat 4 to 6 small meals every day. Do not lift heavy weights for 8 weeks after your surgery.”

Subcutaneous emphysema (SE) is a condition where gas or air accumulates in the subcutaneous tissue layer of the skin, causing swelling and a crackling sensation when touched. SE can occur after esophagectomy, a surgical procedure to remove part or all of the esophagus, due to air leakage from the anastomosis site or the lung. SE can also be a sign of a more serious complication, such as anastomotic leakage, mediastinitis, or tracheal injury12. Therefore, the nurse should expect an order for a CT scan, which is a diagnostic imaging test that can detect the source and extent of the air leakage and any associated complications. A CT scan can also guide the appropriate management of SE, which may include conservative measures, such as increasing the suction of the chest tube, or more invasive interventions, such as surgical repair or drainage123. Chest tube insertion, IV antibiotics, and gastric decompression are not likely to be ordered for SE after esophagectomy, as they do not address the underlying cause of the air leakage or the potential complications. Chest tube insertion may be indicated for pneumothorax, but not for SE alone. IV antibiotics may be indicated for infection, but not for SE alone. Gastric decompression may be indicated for gastric distension, but not for SE alone.

For a post-surgical patient with a history of heroin addiction, a PCA (patient-controlled analgesia) with both continuous and on-demand opioid delivery ensures consistent pain control and addresses both baseline pain and breakthrough pain. This approach helps manage pain more effectively and can prevent withdrawal symptoms in patients with opioid tolerance. References: = AACN Certification and Core Review for High Acuity and Critical Care, 7th Edition, AACN Handbook for CCRN Certification, pp. 88-90.

The clinical presentation of lower left quadrant pain with guarding, abdominal distention, rigidity, and free air in the abdominal cavity on a KUB (kidney, ureter, and bladder) radiograph strongly suggests a perforated bowel. The presence of free air indicates that there is a breach in the gastrointestinal tract, allowing air to escape into the peritoneal cavity. The patient's vital signs, including hypotension (BP 76/40), tachycardia (HR 130), tachypnea (RR 32), and fever (T 101.7°F), are consistent with sepsis and shock, which are common complications of bowel perforation. References: CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN, page 30, section on Gastrointestinal.