Fire-Inspector-II Sample Questions Answers

Fire-Resistance Rating for Nonbearing Walls in Type IV Construction

Type IV (Heavy Timber) construction, as defined by the International Building Code (IBC) 2021, Section 602.4, consists of large, solid or laminated wood members.

Interior nonbearing walls and partitions in Type IV construction are not required to have a fire-resistance rating (0 hours) unless they separate different occupancies or are specifically mandated by another code provision.

2. Why Type IV Does Not Require a Rating for Nonbearing Walls

The heavy timber components inherently provide fire resistance due to their large cross-section, which chars on the surface and slows fire penetration.

IBC Table 601 confirms that interior nonbearing walls in Type IV construction do not have a required fire-resistance rating.

3. Verification of Other Options

Option B (1 hour) – Incorrect, as Type IV does not require a 1-hour rating for interior nonbearing walls unless specific conditions apply.

Option C (1-1/2 hours) – Incorrect, as there is no code requirement for this level of rating in Type IV nonbearing walls.

Option D (2 hours) – Incorrect, as Type IV walls are not rated unless separating occupancies.

Reference Sources:

International Building Code (IBC) 2021 – Section 602.4 (Type IV Construction Requirements)

IBC Table 601 (Fire-Resistance Ratings for Building Elements)

ICC Fire Inspector II Study Guide (2021)

IFC Section 105.6 lists activities requiring operational permits. For A, lumber storage exceeding 100,000 board feet (bd. ft.) indoors or outdoors requires a permit (Section 105.6.28, Lumber Yards), but local thresholds may be lower—85,000 bd. ft. is close to this limit and likely exceeds typical exempt amounts, triggering a permit in many jurisdictions. For B, IFC Table 3206.2 allows small quantities of combustible commodities like baled cotton (100 cu. ft. is minimal) without a permit unless part of a larger high-piled storage operation. For C, fruit ripening with CO2 (Section 105.6.13) requires a permit only for specific flammable gases, not CO2 alone, which is nonflammable. For D, organic coating production (Section 105.6.33) requires a permit only above 1 gallon per day, but 2 gallons is still small-scale and context-dependent—lumber storage is the clearer permit trigger here. Thus, A is the best answer.

 Reference to ICC Fire Code Regulations:

According to the International Fire Code (IFC) Section 308.1.5 (2021 Edition), the use of open-flame devices, including candles, is prohibited in dormitories, sleeping rooms, and similar occupancies unless specifically approved by the fire code official.

The regulation exists to prevent fire hazards in areas with high occupant density and potentially limited egress routes.

 Fire Safety Concerns in Dormitories:

Dormitories typically contain highly combustible materials such as bedding, curtains, and furniture, making them susceptible to rapid fire spread.

The presence of multiple residents in a shared living space increases the risk of fire-related casualties.

Even in sprinklered buildings, candles pose an unnecessary ignition risk that could endanger occupants before the activation of fire suppression systems.

 Clarification of Incorrect Answer Choices:

B. may be used in a sprinklered dormitory → Incorrect

While fire sprinklers help control fires, they do not prevent ignition, and the prohibition still applies regardless of sprinkler systems.

C. must be kept a minimum of 12 inches from combustibles → Incorrect

This rule applies to general open-flame devices in some circumstances but does not override the outright ban on candles in dormitories.

D. must be kept a minimum of 36 inches from combustibles → Incorrect

Similar to option C, maintaining a distance from combustibles does not exempt candles from being prohibited in dormitory settings.

 Conclusion:

The correct and verified answer is A (Candles may not be used) based on the International Fire Code (IFC) Section 308.1.5, ensuring fire safety compliance in dormitory settings.

IFC Section 108 (Board of Appeals) outlines the board’s role: it hears appeals on fire code official decisions (Section 108.1), can interpret the code (B), approve alternatives (C) per Section 104.9, and establish procedural rules (D) per Section 108.2. However, the board cannot “waive” code requirements outright (A)—it can only grant variances or approve alternatives that still meet the code’s intent, not eliminate requirements entirely. Waiving implies nullification, which exceeds the board’s authority; that power rests with the fire code official or legislative amendments. Thus, A is the exception.

To determine the maximum number of students permitted in a classroom, we must follow the occupant load calculation based on the 2021 International Building Code (IBC) and International Fire Code (IFC).

Step 1: Calculate the Room Area

The classroom measures 20 ft. x 30 ft., so the total area is:

20×30=600 sq. ft.20 \times 30 = 600 \text{ sq. ft.}20×30=600 sq. ft.

Step 2: Subtract the Area Occupied by Fixed Tables

Each table measures 4 ft. x 8 ft., so its area is:

4×8=32 sq. ft. per table4 \times 8 = 32 \text{ sq. ft. per table}4×8=32 sq. ft. per table

Since there are 4 tables:

32×4=128 sq. ft. occupied by tables32 \times 4 = 128 \text{ sq. ft. occupied by tables}32×4=128 sq. ft. occupied by tables

Step 3: Determine the Usable Space for Students

600−128=472 sq. ft. available600 - 128 = 472 \text{ sq. ft. available}600−128=472 sq. ft. available

Step 4: Apply the Occupant Load Factor

According to 2021 IBC Table 1004.5 (Occupant Load Factor), the factor for a classroom with tables and chairs is 20 sq. ft. per person.

472÷20=23.6472 \div 20 = 23.6472÷20=23.6

Since the occupant load must be rounded down, the maximum number of students is 24.

Reference to Fire Inspector Documentation:

1. 2021 International Building Code (IBC) – Table 1004.5 (Occupant Load Factor)

A classroom with tables and chairs requires 20 sq. ft. per occupant.

This method ensures compliance with egress and fire safety requirements.

2. 2021 International Fire Code (IFC) – Section 1004.1 (Occupant Load Determination)

The IFC states that occupant load is based on net usable floor area and must follow IBC Table 1004.5.

Detailed Explanation of Answer Choices:

Option A (Incorrect): 12 students would be too low based on the calculations.

Option B (Correct): 24 students is the accurate calculation following IBC 1004.5.

Option C (Incorrect): 30 students would exceed the available space per code.

Option D (Incorrect): 40 students is far above the allowed maximum.

Thus, the correct and verified answer is: B. 24.

The fire-resistance rating requirements for different building elements in Type IV (Heavy Timber) construction are specified in the 2021 International Building Code (IBC), Table 601 – Fire-Resistance Rating Requirements for Building Elements (Hours).

IBC Table 601 – Fire Resistance for Type IV Construction:

Interior nonbearing walls and partitions in Type IV construction require 0 hours of fire resistance.

This is because Type IV construction primarily relies on large, heavy timber elements that provide inherent fire resistance.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?

B. 1 hour – Incorrect, as nonbearing interior walls in Type IV construction are not required to have a fire-resistance rating.

C. 1-1/2 hours – Not required by code.

D. 2 hours – Only structural elements like exterior walls in some cases may require fire resistance, but nonbearing interior partitions do not.

✅ Correct Answer: A. 0 hours

According to fire codes, a hazardous materials storage tank that remains unused for more than 90 days requires additional safeguards as determined by the code official. This is to prevent leaks, contamination, and fire hazards due to deterioration or potential unauthorized access.

Reference to Fire Inspector Documentation:

1. 2021 International Fire Code (IFC) – Section 5704.2.13.1.3 (Out-of-Service Storage Tanks)

IFC 5704.2.13.1.3 states that a hazardous materials storage tank left unused for more than 90 days must be safeguarded by the measures required by the code official. These measures may include:

Removal of hazardous substances

Proper tank inerting or sealing

Leak prevention and periodic inspections

2. NFPA 30 – Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code (2021 Edition)

NFPA 30, Section 21.7.1 aligns with IFC guidelines, stating that inactive hazardous materials tanks must be properly maintained or decommissioned after 90 days.

Detailed Explanation of Answer Choices:

Option A (Incorrect): 30 days is too short; the IFC specifies 90 days as the threshold for requiring safeguards.

Option B (Incorrect): 60 days is also too short based on the IFC and NFPA 30 requirements.

Option C (Correct): 90 days is the correct limit before safety measures are required.

Option D (Incorrect): 120 days would exceed the safety limit, leading to potential hazards.

Thus, the correct and verified answer is: C. 90 days.

The maximum travel distance to an exit from within a tent is regulated under the 2021 International Fire Code (IFC), Section 3103.12.2 – Means of Egress (Tents and Membrane Structures).

IFC Section 3103.12.2 – Travel Distance:

"The maximum travel distance to an exit shall not exceed 150 feet (45,720 mm)."

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?

A. 75 ft. – This limit does not apply to tents; the correct limit is 150 ft.

B. 100 ft. – Too restrictive; the IFC allows up to 150 ft.

D. Any distance approved by the chief. – The fire code does not allow unlimited travel distances; 150 feet is the maximum permitted by code.

✅ Correct Answer: C. 150 ft.

 Reference to Magnesium Dust Collection Requirements:

NFPA 484 (Standard for Combustible Metals), Section 9.3.2, requires that magnesium dust from grinding, buffing, or wire brushing must be collected using a liquid precipitation-type separator.

The International Fire Code (IFC 2021), Section 2205, also references proper dust collection for combustible metals like magnesium.

 Why Use a Liquid Precipitation-Type Separator?

Magnesium dust is highly combustible and reacts violently with air and moisture.

A liquid precipitation-type separator prevents dust accumulation and ignition by using a liquid medium to safely capture and neutralize metal dust particles.

Other collection methods can generate static electricity or allow dangerous dust accumulation, increasing fire and explosion risks.

 Clarification of Incorrect Answer Choices:

A. Cloth screen arrestor → Incorrect

Not effective for combustible metal dust, as magnesium dust can ignite easily and pass through fabric filters.

B. Low-pressure cyclone → Incorrect

Cyclones are used for larger particulate matter, but not suitable for fine magnesium dust due to fire and explosion hazards.

C. Dry-type dynamic precipitator → Incorrect

Dry-type systems can accumulate magnesium dust, creating an explosion hazard.

 Conclusion:

The correct and verified answer is D (liquid precipitation type of separator) based on NFPA 484 Section 9.3.2 and IFC 2205, ensuring safe collection of magnesium dust during grinding, buffing, or wire brushing operations.

Refrigeration systems and units are regulated under IFC 2021, Section 605 – Refrigeration Equipment, and the requirement for emergency signs, charts, and labels is tied to the NFPA 704 Hazardous Materials Identification System.

IFC 2021, Section 605.12.3 – Signage for Refrigeration Systems:

States that approved emergency signs, charts, and labels must be provided when the refrigerant quantity exceeds 220 pounds for Group A1 refrigerants.

Definition of Group A1 Refrigerants (Low Toxicity, Low Flammability):

Examples include R-134a, R-410A, and R-22, which are commonly used in commercial and industrial HVAC systems.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?

A. 30 lb. – Too low; labeling requirements do not apply at this threshold.

B. 100 lb. – Incorrect; the IFC requirement specifies 220 lb.

C. 200 lb. – Close, but still below the 220 lb. threshold.

According to the 2021 International Fire Code (IFC) and the International Building Code (IBC) Section 1014.3, handrails are categorized into Type I and Type II based on their shape and size requirements.

Type I handrails refer to those that are not circular in shape but still comply with graspability requirements.

IBC Section 1014.3.1 states that:

If a handrail is not circular, it must have a perimeter dimension between 4 inches (minimum) and 6.25 inches (maximum).

The cross-section of such a handrail should provide an adequate grasping surface.

✅ Correct Answer: D. 6.25 inches

The storage of liquefied petroleum gas (LP-gas) in containers by dealers awaiting resale is regulated by the 2021 International Fire Code (IFC), Section 6109 – Storage of Portable LP-Gas Containers.

IFC 6109.11 – Storage Within Buildings Not Accessible to the Public:

"Storage of LP-gas containers in buildings that are not accessible to the public shall be limited to a maximum aggregate quantity of 2,000 pounds water capacity at one location."

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?

A. 735 lb. – Too low; the maximum allowed is 2,000 lb.

B. 1,000 lb. – Incorrect; IFC allows up to 2,000 lb.

D. 2,500 lb. – Exceeds the 2,000 lb. maximum permitted storage quantity.

✅ Correct Answer: C. 2,000 lb.

The maximum travel distance allowed in a one-story Group F-2 (Factory Industrial - Low Hazard) occupancy with automatic sprinklers and automatic smoke and heat vents is regulated by 2021 International Fire Code (IFC) Table 1017.2 – Exit Access Travel Distance.

IFC Table 1017.2 – Maximum Travel Distance:

For a Group F-2 occupancy equipped with an automatic sprinkler system, the maximum allowable exit access travel distance is 400 feet.

However, when automatic smoke and heat vents are installed, the travel distance is limited to 350 feet.

This is because while the sprinklers control fire spread, smoke and heat vents help with smoke control, allowing for extended egress distances but not as much as without them.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?

A. 250 ft. – Too restrictive; the IFC allows a longer travel distance in this scenario.

B. 300 ft. – Less than the allowed 350 ft.

D. 400 ft. – Only applicable without smoke and heat vents.

 Reference to Fire-Flow Requirements for Type IIB Buildings:

The International Fire Code (IFC 2021), Appendix B, Table B105.1(2) establishes the minimum fire-flow requirements for buildings based on construction type, size, and the presence of sprinkler systems.

For a 75,000 sq. ft. Type IIB (non-combustible, unprotected) building without sprinklers, the required fire-flow is 5,500 gpm for 4 hours.

 Why Fire-Flow Matters:

Fire-flow ensures that sufficient water is available to control and extinguish fires in large buildings.

Type IIB buildings lack built-in fire resistance enhancements, making adequate fire-flow crucial.

 Clarification of Incorrect Answer Choices:

A. 3,000 gpm for 3 hours → Incorrect

Too low for a building of this size and construction type.

B. 4,000 gpm for 4 hours → Incorrect

Below the required 5,500 gpm per IFC Appendix B.

D. 5,750 gpm for 4 hours → Incorrect

Slightly above the requirement but not the exact minimum mandated by IFC Table B105.1(2).

 Conclusion:

The correct and verified answer is C (5,500 gpm for 4 hours) as per IFC Appendix B, Table B105.1(2), ensuring compliance with fire-flow standards for Type IIB buildings without sprinklers.

 Reference to Liquid-Level Limit Control Requirements for Atmospheric Tanks:

According to The International Fire Code (IFC 2021), Section 5704.2.7.5, atmospheric tanks containing hazardous materials must be equipped with a liquid-level limit control if their capacity exceeds 500 gallons.

This requirement ensures that overfilling is prevented, reducing the risk of hazardous spills, leaks, and fire hazards.

 Purpose of Liquid-Level Limit Controls:

These controls automatically shut off or alert operators when the liquid level reaches a predetermined limit.

They prevent tank overfill and reduce the risk of hazardous material release, which can cause fires, explosions, or environmental contamination.

 Clarification of Incorrect Answer Choices:

A. 55 gallons → Incorrect

55-gallon drums are not subject to the same overfill protection requirements as large atmospheric tanks.

B. 100 gallons → Incorrect

Too low based on IFC 5704.2.7.5, which sets the requirement at 500 gallons.

C. 250 gallons → Incorrect

Some local regulations may require monitoring for tanks of this size, but IFC specifies 500 gallons as the mandatory threshold.

 Conclusion:

The correct and verified answer is D (500 gallons) based on IFC 5704.2.7.5, ensuring proper overfill protection for atmospheric tanks containing hazardous materials.

The requirement for panic hardware on exit doors is specified in 2021 IFC Section 1010.2.9 – Panic and Fire Exit Hardware.

IFC Section 1010.2.9.1 – Where Panic Hardware is Required:

Panic hardware is required for Group A (Assembly) occupancies when the occupant load is 50 or more.

It is also required in certain Group E (Educational) and Group R-1 (Hotels and Dormitories) occupancies under specific conditions.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?

A. 10; A – The threshold for panic hardware in Group A occupancies is 50, not 10.

C. 50; M – Group M (Mercantile) does not require panic hardware unless specifically required by another section of the code.

D. 100; F – Panic hardware is not required in Group F (Factory) occupancies at 100 occupants; the threshold applies primarily to Group A.

In Group I occupancies (such as hospitals, nursing homes, and correctional facilities), keys necessary for unlocking exit doors must be individually identifiable by both sight and touch. This ensures quick identification of keys in an emergency, especially for staff members assisting occupants with limited mobility.

Reference to Fire Inspector Documentation:

1. 2021 International Fire Code (IFC) – Section 1010.1.9.9 (Identifiable Keys for Exit Doors in Group I Occupancies)

IFC 1010.1.9.9 specifically states that in Group I occupancies, all keys used to unlock exit doors must be uniquely identifiable by both sight and touch.

This helps staff quickly locate and use the correct key in an emergency evacuation.

2. NFPA 101 – Life Safety Code (2021 Edition) – Section 18.2.2.2.6 (Key Identification in Institutional Occupancies)

NFPA 101 mandates that keys in healthcare and correctional facilities (Group I) must be distinguishable by touch and sight for emergency use.

Detailed Explanation of Answer Choices:

Option A (Incorrect): Group A occupancies (Assembly) do not have this requirement.

Option B (Incorrect): Group E occupancies (Educational) do not have this specific key-identification mandate.

Option C (Correct): Group I occupancies (Institutional) require individually identifiable keys per IFC 1010.1.9.9.

Option D (Incorrect): Group R occupancies (Residential, such as apartments and hotels) do not have this specific requirement.

Thus, the correct and verified answer is: C. Group I occupancies.

Inspection checklists are valuable tools for fire inspectors, ensuring that key inspection points are consistently reviewed. However, one of their limitations is that they may not cover every potential code violation. This is due to the complexity and variability of fire codes, as well as the uniqueness of each inspection scenario.

Reference to Fire Inspector Documentation:

1. 2021 IFC (International Fire Code) & ICC Fire Inspection Manual

The ICC Fire Inspection Manual (Chapter 4 – Fire Inspection Procedures) emphasizes that while checklists help streamline inspections, they should not be the sole reference. Inspectors must be prepared to identify violations beyond those listed.

2. NFPA 1031 – Standard for Professional Qualifications for Fire Inspector and Plan Examiner

NFPA 1031 (Chapter 4: Fire Inspector I and II Roles & Responsibilities) states that inspectors must apply critical thinking and code knowledge rather than rely solely on pre-prepared lists.

3. 2021 Fire Inspector II Study Guide – ICC

This guide highlights that checklists are helpful but should be supplemented with a thorough knowledge of fire codes to ensure comprehensive inspections.

Detailed Explanation:

Option A (Incorrect): The fact that checklists become a public record is generally not a "problem" but rather a standard practice for transparency and accountability.

Option B (Incorrect): While checklists may take time to complete, this is a minor administrative issue rather than a fundamental problem with their use.

Option C (Correct): The main issue is that no checklist can comprehensively cover all possible violations, requiring inspectors to use judgment and knowledge.

Option D (Incorrect): Although legal appeals may occur, checklists themselves do not typically serve as the direct basis for such challenges.

Thus, the verified and correct answer is: C. They may not address all of the code violations which may be encountered.

 Reference to Elevator Safety and Firefighter Use:

ASME A17.1 (Safety Code for Elevators and Escalators) establishes the safety requirements for elevators, including those designated for firefighter and emergency personnel use.

The International Fire Code (IFC) and NFPA 101 (Life Safety Code) both reference ASME A17.1 when addressing elevator safety and firefighter access.

 Firefighter Access and Operation Requirements:

ASME A17.1, Section 2.27 covers Firefighter Emergency Operations (FEO), which includes:

Phase I Operation (Automatic recall of elevators to a designated floor upon activation of fire alarms).

Phase II Operation (Manual override by firefighters for rescue and suppression operations).

IFC 607.1 (2021 Edition) mandates that fire service access elevators comply with ASME A17.1 for firefighter use in high-rise and multi-story buildings.

 Clarification of Incorrect Answer Choices:

A. UL 803 → Incorrect

UL 803 is not related to elevator fire safety; it pertains to electrical control panels for industrial applications.

B. NFPA 70 (National Electrical Code) → Incorrect

While NFPA 70 covers electrical wiring and circuits, it does not specifically regulate elevator emergency operations.

D. ASME A17.3 → Incorrect

ASME A17.3 is the Safety Code for Existing Elevators and Escalators, which applies to retrofits and upgrades, but ASME A17.1 is the primary code for operational and emergency use elevators.

 Conclusion:

The correct and verified answer is C (ASME A17.1) because it specifically outlines the requirements for firefighter and emergency personnel elevator use, ensuring compliance with the IFC and NFPA codes.

The interior finish requirements for walls and ceilings in an atrium are regulated under the 2021 International Building Code (IBC), Section 404 – Atriums, and Table 803.11 – Interior Wall and Ceiling Finish Requirements.

IBC Section 404.8 – Interior Finish in Atriums:

"The interior finish of walls and ceilings in an atrium shall be not less than Class A."

Class A interior finishes have the highest level of fire resistance and low flame spread to minimize fire hazards in large open spaces like atriums.

Class A Interior Finish Ratings (Per ASTM E84 and NFPA 286):

Flame Spread Index: 0 – 25

Smoke Developed Index: 0 – 450

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?

B. Class B – Less fire-resistant than Class A, not permitted for atriums.

C. Class C – Provides even lower fire protection, making it unsuitable.

D. Class D – Not recognized as an acceptable interior finish classification for atriums.

For Group I-2 occupancies (such as hospitals, nursing homes, and similar healthcare facilities), horizontal exits are used to improve fire safety by allowing occupants to move to a safer area without using stairs or elevators.

IFC 2021, Section 1026.1 (Horizontal Exits – General Requirements) states that:

Horizontal exits shall not comprise more than one-half (1/2) of the required exits from any floor area in a Group I-2 occupancy.

This ensures that at least 50% of the required exits remain traditional vertical or exterior exits, maintaining a balance between horizontal and traditional egress routes.

✅ Correct Answer: B. 1/2

 Reference to Occupant Load Factor Calculations:

The International Fire Code (IFC 2021), Table 1004.5 provides occupant load factors for different types of occupancies.

For assembly occupancy with tables and chairs, the occupant load factor is 15 square feet per person (net area).

 Calculation of Occupant Load:

Formula: Occupant Load=Net Square FootageOccupant Load Factor\text{Occupant Load} = \frac{\text{Net Square Footage}}{\text{Occupant Load Factor}}Occupant Load=Occupant Load FactorNet Square Footage​

Given: 2,500 net square feet, with a load factor of 15 sq. ft. per person: 250015=166.67≈167 occupants\frac{2500}{15} = 166.67 \approx 167 \text{ occupants}152500​=166.67≈167 occupants

 Clarification of Incorrect Answer Choices:

A. 167 → Correct

Matches the exact IFC Table 1004.5 calculation.

B. 227 → Incorrect

Would correspond to a lower load factor (about 11 sq. ft. per occupant), which is not the standard for tables and chairs.

C. 357 → Incorrect

Would correspond to a 7 sq. ft. per occupant factor, used for tighter seating arrangements (e.g., assembly without fixed seats).

D. 500 → Incorrect

Would correspond to a 5 sq. ft. per occupant factor, typically used for standing areas or dense seating arrangements.

 Conclusion:

The correct and verified answer is A (167 occupants) based on IFC Table 1004.5, using the standard occupant load factor for assembly occupancies with tables and chairs.

 Reference to Halon 1211 Hand-Hose-Line System Requirements:

NFPA 12A (Standard on Halon 1211 Fire Extinguishing Systems), Section 6.5, states that all hoses for high-pressure Halon 1211 hand-hose-line systems must be tested at 1,500 psi to ensure they can withstand operational pressure without failure.

The International Fire Code (IFC 2021), Section 904.10, also references the requirements for Halon 1211 systems, ensuring proper testing for system integrity.

 Purpose of Pressure Testing:

High-pressure Halon 1211 systems operate under significant force, and hose failures could result in loss of fire suppression capability or safety hazards.

Testing at 1,500 psi ensures hoses can handle peak pressures without rupture or degradation over time.

 Clarification of Incorrect Answer Choices:

A. 600 psi → Incorrect

Too low for high-pressure systems, insufficient to verify hose integrity.

B. 900 psi → Incorrect

Below the required 1,500 psi standard for high-pressure Halon 1211 hoses.

D. 2,500 psi → Incorrect

Exceeds the required test pressure per NFPA 12A; unnecessary over-testing could damage hoses.

 Conclusion:

The correct and verified answer is C (1,500 psi) based on NFPA 12A and IFC 904.10, ensuring compliance with Halon 1211 high-pressure system testing standards.